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Gnesinka [82]
3 years ago
11

the cost of land improvements are capitalized separately from land because land improvements tend to have a useful life.

Business
1 answer:
lisabon 2012 [21]3 years ago
4 0

Land improvements are capitalized separately from Land because land improvements have only a limited useful life.

Land is a special fixed asset which means that:

  • It is purchased for long term use
  • It is not depreciated because it lasts forever

Land improvements on the other hand, will not last forever. They will eventually wear out and need to be replaced. They are therefore capitalized separately from land so that they can be depreciated if need be.

In conclusion, land improvements are capitalized separately from land because they have a limited useful life.

<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/14436052.</em>

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Quirch Inc. manufactures machine parts for aircraft engines. The CEO, Chucky Valters, was considering an offer from a subcontrac
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

Supplier's quotation (2,400 x $6.25)                     150,000

Less: Relevant cost of production:

Direct material (2,400 x $31)                 74,400

Direct labour (2,400 x $18)                    43,200

Variable overhead (2,400 x $9)             <u>21,600</u>       <u>139,200</u>

Savings                                                                       <u> 10,800</u>

The parts should be produced in-house since the relevant cost of production is lower than supplier's quotation.

 Explanation:

In this case, we need to compare supplier's quotation to the relevant cost of production. The price of $6.25 above was computed by dividing the total price charged by the supplier by the number of parts. Moreso, the relevant cost of production is obtained by the aggregate of direct material, direct labour and variable overhead.

8 0
3 years ago
What determines the value of an item?
balandron [24]

Answer:

the resources consumed in production

Explanation: answer for ed2020

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The following information is available for Cheyenne Corp..
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

(a) Earnings per share for 2022 and 2021 for Cheyenne are as follows:

Earnings per share for 2002 = $1.21

Earnings per share for 2001 = $1.10

(b) The current ratio and debt to assets ratio for each year are as follows:

Current ratio for 2002 = 2.40

Current ratio for 2001 = 1.25

Debt to assets ratio for 2002 = 29%

Debt to assets ratio for 2001 = 41%

(c) Free cash flow for each year are as follows:

Free cash flow for 2002 = $63,000

Free cash flow for 2001 = $44,000

Explanation:

(a) Compute earnings per share for 2022 and 2021 for Cheyenne. (Round Earnings per share to 2 decimal places, e.g. $2.78.)

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Earnings per share = (Net income - Preferred dividends) / Average shares outstanding ..................... (1)

Where;

Average common shares outstanding = (Common shares outstanding at beginning of year + Common shares outstanding at end of year) / 2

Using equation (1), we have:

Earnings per share for 2002 = (81,700 - 9,705) / ((42,000 + 77,000) / 2) = $1.21

Earnings per share for 2001 = (51,615 - 9,705) / ((31,700 + 44,500) / 2) = $1.10

(b) Compute the current ratio and debt to assets ratio for each year. (Round ratio answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25 and percentage answers to 0 decimal places, e.g. 15%.)

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Current ratio = Current assets / Current liabilities ................... (2)

Debt to assets ratio = (Total liabilities / Total assets) * 100 .............. (3)

Using equation (2), we have:

Current ratio for 2002 = 56,880 / 23,700 = 2.40

Current ratio for 2001 = 39,625 / 31,700 = 1.25

Using equation (3), we have:

Debt to assets ratio for 2002 = (70,180 / 242,000) * 100 = 29%

Debt to assets ratio for 2001 = (84,870 / 207,000) * 100 = 41%

(c) Compute free cash flow for each year.

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Free cash flow = Net cash provided by operating activities - Expenditures on property, plant, and equipment .................(4)

Using equation (4), we have:

Free cash flow for 2002 = $91,700 - $28,700 = $63,000

Free cash flow for 2001 = $57,700 - $13,700 = $44,000

7 0
3 years ago
Fob destination means that goods are owned by the buyer as soon as ______.
RSB [31]

FOB Destination describe goods whose risk will be catered by Seller until being delivered to the buyer.

FOB Destination is an acronym for "Freight on Board" Destination

  • The FOB Destination is a <em>marine term</em> used to describes that legal title of goods belongs to the Seller until they are delivered to buyer.

  • In other word, its means that seller of a product owns the risk of loss on a goods until its is delivered to the buyer.

In conclusion, the term states that the goods are owned by the buyer as soon as it is not delivered to the buyer.

Read more on FOB Destination here

<em>brainly.com/question/15102930</em>

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The following transactions apply to Ozark Sales for Year 1:
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

Current liabilities: Accounts payable$130,000

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Warranty Payable 4,000

Interest payable 667

Notes payable 50,000

Total current liabilities$193,467

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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