The probability of rolling a 1 or a 5 is 16/40 reduced to 2/5. 16/40÷8 16÷8=2 40<span>÷8=5 so your probability is 2/5 or 40%
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Answer:
2x=y
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
(8x2−4x−8)(2x+3x+2)
=(8x2+−4x+−8)(2x+3x+2)
=(8x2)(2x)+(8x2)(3x)+(8x2)(2)+(−4x)(2x)+(−4x)(3x)+(−4x)(2)+(−8)(2x)+(−8)(3x)+(−8)(2)
=16x3+24x3+16x2−8x2−12x2−8x−16x−24x−16
=40x3−4x2−48x−16
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
-2a^4+8a^3-6a^2
Step-by-step explanation:
2a^2(a-1)(3-a)
2a^2(-a^2 +3a-3+a)
2a^2(-a^2+4a-3)
-2a^4+8a^3-6a^2
