Answer:
Bob now has 53 candy bars.
Step-by-step explanation:
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Answer:
1/3
Step-by-step explanation:
-6+(-1/3)= -19/3
-19/3 + 20/3 = 1/3
A. 53/100
B. 163/200
C. 53/10
D. 163/20
Those are the answers to the question.
We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
Answer:
2 ≤ x < 7
Step-by-step explanation:
-1 ≤ x – 3 < 4
Add 3 to each side
-1+3 ≤ x – 3+3 < 4+3
2 ≤ x < 7