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antiseptic1488 [7]
3 years ago
5

7. By using binomial expansion show that the value of (1.01)^12 exceed the value of (1.02)^6 by 0.0007 correct to four decimal p

laces.​
Mathematics
1 answer:
BlackZzzverrR [31]3 years ago
7 0

Binomial expansion is used to factor expressions that can be expressed as the power of the sum of two numbers.

The proof that (1.01)^12 exceeds (1.02)^6 by 0.0007 is\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} - (1.02)^6 \approx 0.0007 }

The expressions are given as:

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12}\ and\ (1.02)^6}

A binomial expression is represented as:

\mathbf{(a + b)^n = \sum\limits^n_{k=0}^nC_k a^{n - k}b^k}

Express 1.01 as 1 + 0.01

So, we have:

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} = (1 + 0.01)^{12}}

Apply the above formula

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} = ^{12}C_0 \times 1^{12 - 0} \times 0.01^0 + .........  .......... +  ^{12}C_{12} \times 1^{12 - 12} \times 0.01^{12} }}

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} = 1 \times 1 \times 1 + .........  .......... +  1 \times 1 \times 10^{-24} }}

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} = 1  + .........  .......... +  10^{-24} }}

This gives

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} = 1.1268\ (approximated)}

Similarly,

Express 1.02 as 1 + 0.02

So, we have:

\mathbf{(1.02)^6 = (1 + 0.02)^6}

Apply \mathbf{(a + b)^n = \sum\limits^n_{k=0}^nC_k a^{n - k}b^k}

\mathbf{(1.02)^6 = ^6C_0 \times 1^{6 - 0} \times 0.02^0 +  ^6C_1 \times 1^{6 - 1} \times 0.02^1 +.............. + ^6C_6 \times 1^{6 - 6} \times 0.02^6 }\mathbf{(1.02)^6 = 1 \times 1 \times 1 +  6 \times 1 \times 0.02 +.............. + 1 \times 1 \times 6.4 \times 10^{-11} }

\mathbf{(1.02)^6 = 1 +  0.12 +.............. + 6.4 \times 10^{-11} }

This gives

\mathbf{(1.02)^6 = 1.1261\ (approximated) }

Calculate the difference as follows:

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} - (1.02)^6 \approx 1.1268 - 1.1261 }

\mathbf{(1.01)^{12} - (1.02)^6 \approx 0.0007 }

The above equation means that:

(1.01)^12 exceed the value of (1.02)^6 by 0.0007

Read more about binomial expansions at:

brainly.com/question/9554282

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timofeeve [1]

Answer:

193

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's "cheat" a little on this one

We know that the numbers are consecutive

so lets take the square root of 9312 to get close

√9312 = 96.4987046545

Consecutive numbers around 96.4987046545

96 * 97 = 9312

96 + 97 = 193

-------------------------------

The "correct" method would be to set up an equation

x(x + 1) = 9312

x² + x = 9312

x² + x - 9312 = 0

Then use the quadratic equation to solve for x

Which you can do if you're so inclined.

Me, I'm happy to have "cheated"

7 0
3 years ago
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How do I solve -6+ 5 1/4
Mashcka [7]

5 1/4 = 5.25 in decimal form. So,

-6 + 5.25 = -0.75

Hope I helped!

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3 years ago
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If the digits of a three-digit number are reversed in order, then the sum of the new resulting number and the original number co
sattari [20]
Y + x = 665
|x - y| = 297
x = 665 - y
|665 - y - y| = 297
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Path 1:
665 - 2y = 297
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Path 2:
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So y is either 184 or 481. 
Now, lets check
the tens place is 2 times the hundreds place
That rules out 184
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Five thousand tickets are sold at​ $1 each for a charity raffle. tickets are to be drawn at random and monetary prizes awarded a
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Answer:

Expected value of raffle = $-0.67

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of tickets sold = 5,000

Selling price of each ticket = $1

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3 prizes = $300

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20 prizes = $5

The value of each ticket is  given by

value = $500*(1/5000) + $300*(3/5000) + $30*(5/5000 + $5*(20/5000)

value = $0.1 + $0.18 + $0.03 + $0.02

value = $0.33

The expected value is

Expected value = value - selling price

Expected value = $0.33 - $1

Expected value = -$0.67

Therefore, the expected value of this raffle is -$0.67  if you buy 1​ ticket.

The negative sign means that you are most likely to lose $0.67 if you buy a raffle ticket for $1.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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