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3 years ago

6. What does Rose argue should be the last part of a presentation to the VC? Why?

1 answer:

6 0

Rose argued that the last part of a presentation to the VC should be " a wrap-up that leads to the final pitch."

David S. Rose is a prominent angel investor famous for being the founder and Chairman Emeritus of New York Angels.

In one of his entrepreneurship discourses, Rose claimed that the last part of a presentation to the VC should be the overall presentation in a short form that would comprise the main points of the all-around presentation.

Rose concluded that these key points should be the reason to convince a Venture Capitalist to invest in the business.

Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the last part of a presentation is crucial to convince a Venture Capitalist.

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/23471689

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If total spending rises from one year to the next, then Select one: a. either the economy must be producing a larger output of g

DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

a. either the economy must be producing a larger output of goods and services, or goods and services must be selling at higher prices, or both

Explanation:

Total Spending is the total values of goods & services produced & transacted ( bought, sold ) in an economy, during a period of time.

Total Spending = Price of goods,services x Quantity of goods,services

So, if the total spending increases : It implies that either the quantity of goods & services, or their prices, or both have increased. As, amount spent is a product of both of them.

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3 years ago

The account cash overage is which type of account? an asset account a liability account a miscellaneous revenue account a miscel

spayn [35]

The account cash overage is a type of revenue account. A revenue account is where the revenues are considered to be the assets in which is being earned by a particular person handling business activities or operations in which an account cash overage is.

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3 years ago

Calculate the loan balance for each of the six months. The loan balance is calculated as the additional cash needed for a given

alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

The closing balance from the excel sheet is $5,000.00

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

The loan balance required l for each month can be computed as follows:

The loan balance = additional cash needed – cash used to retire debt + loan balance from previous month

Now

By applying the excel formula to perform this task is stated as follows:

D34 = SUM(D31-D33,C34)

The same formula is used to get the values for E34 to I34.

Kindly find an attached copy of the updated excel sheet after applying above formula which is a part of the solution is as follows:

3 0

3 years ago

On January 1, Year 1, Barnes Company issued a $100,000 installment note. The note had a 10-year term and an 8 percent interest r

Over [174]

Answer:

e) $93,097

Explanation:

Interest for 1st year = $100,000*8%

Interest for 1st year =$8,000

Principal repayment for 1st year = $14,903 - $8,000

Principal repayment for 1st year = $6,903

Principal balance on January 1,Year 2 = $100,000 - $6,903

Principal balance on January 1,Year 2 = $93,097

3 0

3 years ago

You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They’ve offered you two different salary arrangement

Fed [463]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Option 1:

You can have $72,000 per year for the next two years

Option 2:

You can have $61,000 per year for the next two years, along with a $17,000 signing bonus today. The bonus is paid immediately, and the salary is paid in equal amounts at the end of each month.

The interest rate is 9 percent compounded monthly.

To calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

First, we need to calculate the final value on both options:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

For each year

Option 1:

i= 0.09/12= 0.0075

n= 12

Year 1= 72,000*1.0075^24= 86,141.77

Year 2= 72,000*1.0075^12= 78,754.09

Total= 164,895.86

PV= 164,895.86/1.0075^24= 137,825.14

Option 2:

Year 1= 61,000*1.0075^24= 72,981.23

Year 2= 61,000*1.0075^12= 66,722.22

Total= 139,703.45

PV= 139,703.45/ 1.0075^24= 116,768.53 + 17,000= 133,768.53

Option 1 is more profitable.

8 0

3 years ago