Answer:
The cost of equity is 12.49 percent
Explanation:
The price per share of a company whose dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate can be calculated using the constant growth model of the DMM. The DDM bases the price of a stock on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under this model is,
P0 = D1 / r - g
Where,
- D1 is the dividend expected for the next period
- r is the cost of equity
- g is the growth rate in dividends
As we already know the P0 which is price today, the D1 and the growth rate in dividends (g), we can plug in the values of these variables in the formula to calculate the cost of equity (r)
100.81 = 8.76 / (r - 0.038)
100.81 * (r - 0.038) = 8.76
100.81r - 3.83078 = 8.76
100.81r = 8.76 + 3.83078
r = 12.59078 / 100.81
r = 0.12489 or 12.489% rounded off to 12.49%
Answer:
Clem should specialise in wheat production because he has higher profits there
Explanation:
Clem needs to make a decision on the product that will maximise his profits and not just the number of units of products he can manufacture.
If he produces only wheat he will have profit of 75 bushels * $2 = $150
If he produces only barley his profit will be 125 bushels * $0.80 = $100
This shows that wheat is more profitable for Clem. Even though he can produce more units of barley.
Answer:
The private savings as a share of the GDP must have declined.
Explanation:
according to the twin deficit hypothesis:
budget deficit = savings + trade deficit - investments
the government deficit as a share of GDP declined and investment as a share of GDP remained constant that means that the savings should decline.
Answer:
5 years
Explanation:
Initital investment $100,000
Cash inflows 1-5 (20,000*5) ($100,000)
The payback period for this investment project is 5 years.
or
100,000/20,000=5 years
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Debt = D ÷ (E + D)
= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)
= 0.4444
Now
Weight of equity = 1 - Debt
= 1 - 0.4444
= 0.5556
As per Dividend discount model
Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)
Cost of equity = 11%
Cost of debt
K = N
Let us assume the par value be $1,000
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N
k=1
K =25
$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25
k=1
YTM = 9
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 9 × (1 - 0.21)
= 7.11
WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)
= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556
= 9.27%
As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion
