2 years ago

19. As part of a cookie recipe, you mix cup of chocolate chips for every 1 cups of

Mathematics

2 answers:

Serggg [28]2 years ago

8 0

Answer: 1 cup

Step-by-step explanation: they have a 1:1 ratio

wariber [46]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have 1 cup of chocolate chips for every 1 cup of sugar, that is a 1:1 ratio

A whole cup of sugar is equal to 1 cup of sugar

Therefore, you will have 1 cup of choloate chips for the whole cup of sugar

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$\begin{gathered} 5sec(x)cot(x)+5sec(x)+cot(x)+1=0 \\ Factoring \\ (cot(x)+1)(5sec(x)+1)=0 \\ cot(x)+1=0 \\ cot(x)=-1 \\ x=cot^{-1}(1) \\ x=\frac{3\pi}{4} \\ \\ 5sec(x)+1=0 \\ 5sec(x)=-1 \\ sec(x)=\frac{-1}{5},\text{ there is no solution} \\ Hence \\ All\text{ solution are }\frac{3\pi}{4}+\pi n,\text{ where n=1,2,3...} \\ \\ \end{gathered}$

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scZoUnD [109]

The property of real numbers illustrated by the equation 16(3t+4v)=48t+ 64v.

Therefore, the answer is: Distributive property.

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