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Dominik [7]
3 years ago
13

Can someone pls help me with this?

Mathematics
1 answer:
frozen [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

slope of the dotted line: m = (-3 - 5)/(0 - 8) = 1

slope of second line (perpendicular to dotted line): -1

The bold line (second side) has slope -1 and passes through point (-4, 9).

y = mx + b

9 = -1(-4) + b

9 = 4 + b

b = 5

Equation of bold line: y = -x + 5

The third side of the rectangle is parallel to the dotted line and contains point (-4, 9). slope = 1

y = mx + b

9 = 1(-4) + b

9 = -4 + b

b = 13

Equation of third side: y = x + 13

The third side lies on a line that is parallel to the dotted line, so its slope is the same as the slope of the dotted line. The third side contains point (-4, 9). We use the equation y = mx + b and substitute -4 and 9 for x and y, respectively. Then we solve for b.

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Is 3x+4y=7 linear or nonlinear
Sloan [31]
Linear. It's in the form C= ax + by, so you back solve to get into the form you know is linear (y= mx + b). So using SADMEP (opposite of Pemdas) we can decide which order to solve for "Y=" in. 4y =7-3x. Y=((7-3X)/4). Y= 7/4 -3/4x. Y=-3/4x +7/4. Which is linear
3 0
4 years ago
Brian & Paul share a lottery win of £7800 in the ratio 1 : 4. Brian then shares his part between himself, his wife & the
Elza [17]

Answer:

The wife gets £468 over the son

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly, we shall calculate the total amount Brian made from from what he and Paul won.

The ratio is 1:4, meaning for every 2 part Brain takes, Paul takes 4

Paul’s share is thus 1/5 * 7800 = 7800/5 = £1560

Now we have another ratio for sharing the amount Brain has at home.

The total ratio here is 1+6+3 = 10

The share of the wife will be 6/10 * 1560 = 6 * 156 = 936

The son share is half of this which is 936/2 = 468

The difference between their shares is £936-£468 = £468

3 0
4 years ago
Concept maps work because they _______.
AnnZ [28]
Showing the relationships among concepts.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A study was conducted to determine whether magnets were effective in treating pain. The values represent measurements of pain us
Zanzabum

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

The objective of the study is to determine whether the magnets are effective in treating pain. For these two independent groups of individuals with equal affections were randomly sampled, one was treated with magnets and the other group of individuals, call it control group, was treated with a placebo treatment.

The information for both samples is:

X₁: pain measurement using a visual analog scale after the individual received magnet treatments.

X₁~N(μ₁;σ₁²)

n₁= 20

X[bar]₁= 0.46

S₁= 0.93

X₂: pain measurement using a visual analog scale of an individual of the control groups.

X₂~N(μ₂;σ₂²)

n₂= 20

X[bar]₂= 0.41

S₂= 1.26

The claim is that the pain reductions of the control group have more variation than the pain reductions of the target group. If it's so then we could suspect that the population variance of the control group, σ₂², will be greater than the population variance of the magnet group, σ₁².

To test the relationship between these two population variances you have to conduct a variance ratio test using the Snedecors F statistic.

The hypotheses are:

H₀: σ₂² ≤ σ₁²

H₁: σ₂² > σ₁²

α: 0.05

F= (\frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}) * (\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2} )~~ F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1)}

This hypothesis test is one-tailed to the right, there is only one critical value:

F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1); 1 - \alpha } = F_{19;19; 0.95}= 2.17

The decision rule for the test is:

If F_{H_0} ≥ 2.17, then the decision is to reject the null hypothesis.

If F_{H_0} < 2.17, then the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis.

F_{H_0}= \frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}*\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2}  = \frac{(1.26)^2}{(0.93)^2} * 1

F_{H_0} = 1.835 = 1.84

Since the calculated value of F is less than the critical value, the decision is to reject the null hypothesis. So using a 5% significance level the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis, you can conclude that the population variance of the pain reduction of the control group is less or equal than the population variance of the pain reduction on individuals treated with magnets.

I hope it helps!

3 0
4 years ago
A rectangle hale card has a length of 3/10 and a width of 4/5 find the perimeter
postnew [5]

Answer:

22/10 or 2 and 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the perimeter, add all sides together. Since it's a rectangle, the other sides are the same measurement as the ones given. Add 3/10, 3/10, 4/5, and 4/5 together. To do this, find a common denominator. The lowest common denominator is 10 so multiply the 4/5 by 2/2 to get the denominator to be 10. Now, add 3/10, 3/10, 8/10, and 8/10. It adds up to 22/10 but if you don't want an improper fraction, simplify it to 2 and 1/5.

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3 years ago
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