I think it is because it is very hard to do
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
A liability account in the balance sheet.
Explanation:
When rent is collected in advance, the entries required to be recognized at the point of collection is as follows;
Debit Cash account
Credit Unearned/Deferred rental revenue
The cash account is an asset while the Unearned/Deferred rental revenue is a liability account.
As such, the collection of rent in advance is A liability account in the balance sheet.
Answer:
The answer is 5.559539 or 5.56.
Explanation:
From the given question let us recall the following statements
The current price of A put option on a stock = $47
With an exercise price of $49
Annual risk-free rate of annual interest is = 5%
The corresponding price call option is = $4.3
The next step is to find the put value
Now,
The Call price + Strike/(1+risk free interest) The Time to maturity =
Spot + Put price
Thus
The,Put price = Call price - Spot + Strike/(1+risk free interest)Time to maturity
When we Substitute the values, we get,
Put price = (4.35 - 47) + 49/1.05 4/12
Therefore, The Put Price = 5.559539 or 5.56
Well obviously the economy is shrinking. people aren’t buying/trading much because they don’t want to risk going out and going through avoidable things you know?
