All categories

3 years ago

Whiat is the converse of the statement below?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Ede4ka [16]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:the answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Inga [223]3 years ago

4 0

Hi there!

The converse of this statement is y=>x.

Hope this helps! ;)

~Just an emotional teen who listens to her favorite song "Try Everything"

$SilentNature ;)$

You might be interested in

One tank is filling at a rate of 4/5 gallon per 1/2 minute. A second tank is filling at a rate of 7/8 gallon per 1/2 minute. Whi

telo118 [61]

Answer:

The second tank.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since both filling up at the same rate, all you would have to do is multiply the gallons.

4/5 multiplying top and bottom by 8 is 32/40

7/8 multiplying top and bottom by 5 is 35/40

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Four small cakes are shared equally among 5 children what part does each child receive?

erastova [34]

Answer:

0.8 of a cake

Step-by-step explanation:

all you do is divide 4 by 5

4 0

3 years ago

What is the simplified expression for <br><br> - 3(2x - 5)

rusak2 [61]

Answer:

-6x + 15

Step-by-step explanation:

This should be your answer if you are doing distributive property.

Please mark as brainliest! <3

6 0

3 years ago

Find the product (3x + 2)(x ^ 3 - 4x ^ 2 + 7)

schepotkina [342]

Answer:

see attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,

Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that $p = 0.15$

Sample of 6:

This means that $n = 6$

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771$

$P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764$

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0

3 years ago