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Vera_Pavlovna [14]
3 years ago
5

How to convert 111101 from base 2 to base 10​

Mathematics
1 answer:
lutik1710 [3]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

61

Step-by-step explanation:

So basically you separate the numbers like 1 1 1 1 0 1, and time 2 while having the number of numbers as the exponent decreasing. Like this, 1x2^5+1x2^4+1x2^3+1x2^2+0x2^1+1x2^0. Then figure it out and it would be 32+16+8+4+0+1=61. If don't understand, look at the picture below

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\bf \qquad \qquad \textit{Future Value of an ordinary annuity}
\\\\
A=pymnt\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{r}{n} \right)^{nt}-1}{\frac{r}{n}} \right]


\bf \qquad 
\begin{cases}
A=
\begin{array}{llll}
\textit{original amount}\\
\textit{already compounded}
\end{array}&
\begin{array}{llll}

\end{array}\\
pymnt=\textit{periodic payments}\to &200\\
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n=
\begin{array}{llll}
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\end{array}\to &4\\

t=years\to &12
\end{cases}
\\\\\\
A=200\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{0.07}{4} \right)^{4\cdot 12}-1}{\frac{0.07}{4}} \right]
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