Answer:
8 red marbles.
Step-by-step explanation:
All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.
40/5=8
You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .
If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.
1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag
If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.
Example:
If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.
Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:
Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8
A.) wooden blue, wooden green.....
Answer:
6 to 1
Step-by-step explanation:
4/2 is 2 and then divide that be 2 and its 1
24/2 is 12 and divide that by 2 and you get 6
Answer:
23.3
Step-by-step explanation:
Use phyth. Thm.
a^2 + b^2 = c^2
A and B are the side lengths, and C is the hypotenuse. The hypotenuse is across the right angle.
Since you only have one side length and the hypotenuse this what your equation will look like:
30^2 + x^2 = 38^2
900 + x^ = 1444
544 = x^2
x = roughly 23.3
