Answer:
$16,500
Explanation:
The computation of increase in investment is shown below:-
Here, if the investor holds 20% or more but less than 50% shares than the dividend paid and income earned by the investee are reported.
Increase in investment = Shares of net income - Share of dividends
= $55,000 × 30% - $0 (Dividend is not paid)
= $16,500
Therefore for computing the increase in investment under equity method we simply applied the above formula.
Internal customers have a relationship with, and within, your company, either through employment or as partners who deliver your product or service to the end user, the external customer
<u>Teardrop Rucksack</u> has the highest production cost.
Production fees refer to all of the direct and oblique fees businesses face from production a product or offering a carrier. Manufacturing expenses can consist of a selection of costs, including exertions, raw substances, consumable manufacturing materials, and general overhead.
It includes 3 most important costs: uncooked substances, direct labor, and overhead. Those charges can be fixed (maximum overhead) or variable (uncooked substances and hard work). The whole product value formula is general Product price = fee of raw substances + price of Direct exertions + price of Overhead.
Blanketed inside the production fee are (1) the fee of uncooked materials, (2) the fee of direct labor, and (3) the cost of overhead. Raw substances and hard work costs are frequently variable, even as the overhead expenses are in the main fixed.
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Answer:
A) true
Explanation:
Compound interest can be regarded as
adding of interest gotten to the principal sum of a deposit or the principal sum of a loan. It's one that is gotten after reinvesting of ones interest instead of paying it out, as a result of this the interest that comes in
next period will be earned on the principal sum along with those interests accumulated before. It should be noted the process of earning compound interest allows a depositor or investor to earn interest on any interest earned in prior periods.
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
The computation of the annual amortization for goodwill is shown below:
As we know in the case of goodwill, the impairment test is to be done on periodic basis and if there is any fall in the value so the same is to be reported as the impairment loss
So for goodwill, no amortization is to be done
hence, the annual amortization is zero
