Your answer should be C :)
good luck
There is no redemption period if the lender is not pursuing a deficiency judgment.
A judicial foreclosure permits the lender to get a deficiency judgment against the borrower. However, the homeowner has the “proper of redemption,” which lets him or her shop for the home returned from the hit bidder on the auction for 12 months after the sale.
In a judicial foreclosures state, the lender has to report a lawsuit in a courtroom in an effort to foreclose. In a nonjudicial foreclosure nation, the lender can foreclose without going through the court docket system. either way, the very last step within the foreclosure process is a foreclosure sale.
Redemption is a period after your home has already been sold at a foreclosure sale when you may nonetheless reclaim your private home. You may want to pay the high-quality mortgage stability and all fees incurred during the foreclosures system.
Learn more about foreclosures here brainly.com/question/15182362
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Answer:
Sept 1,
DR Stock dividends $52,500
CR Common stock $9,000
CR Additional paid in capital $43,500
Sept 1,
DR Stock dividends $90,000
CR Common stock $90,000
Sept 1,
No journal entry required.
<u>Workings</u>
Small Dividends
<em>Stock dividends</em>
= 15,000 * 10% * $35
= $52,500
<em>Common stock </em>
= 15,000*10%* $6
= $9,000
<em>Additional paid in capital</em>
= 52,500 - 9000
= $43,500
Large Dividends
<em>Stock dividends</em>
= 15,000 * $6
= $90,000
<em>Common stock </em>
= 15,000 * $6
= $90,000
<em>No entry for stock splits.</em>
Answer:
Option C is correct because the employees is only authorized to consult his supervisor regarding the resolving issues that the employees are facing in the workplace. The employees are not authorized to consult top management or passing the work related concerns informally to fellow employees or directly conveying the issue to the function involved.
