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3 years ago

Hurry question is on picture

Mathematics

2 answers:

ella [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The last one

Step-by-step explanation:

The rule y times x will give the amount of money earned. After washing x cars. You'll end up with equivalent coordinates

creativ13 [48]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

y=8x

Step-by-step explanation:

y=8(1)=8 (1,8)

y=8(2)=16 (2,16)

y=8(3)=24 (3,24)

y=8(4)=32 (4,32)

y=8(5)=40 (5,40)

y=8(6)=48 (6,48)

y=8(7)=56 (7,56)

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Kayla wants to fence in a rectangular dog pen that is 30 ft by 40 ft How would you use wha

castortr0y [4]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the dimension of the dog pen = 30 ft by 40 ft.

Using the knowledge of geometry, that know that a rectangle has been built, the area of the pen should be :

Area of rectangle = Length * width

Area = 40 * 30

Area = 1200 ft²

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(Length + width)

Perimeter = 2(40 + 30)

Perimeter = 2(70)

Perimeter = 140 feets

Hence, area of the pen should be 1200 ft² and its perimeter or fencing should measure 140 feets

4 0

3 years ago

1) The Multiplicative inverse of the given expression is _________ *

Vilka [71]

90000⅞

I hope it will help you

5 0

3 years ago

A batch of 40 parts contains six defects. If two parts are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement, what is the probabi

adell [148]

Answer:

a) Therefore, the probability is P=1/52.

b) Therefore, the probability is P=9/400.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that a batch of 40 parts contains six defects.

a) We calculate the probability that the both parts are defective, if two parts are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement.

The probability for the first is 6/40.

The probability for the second is 5/39.

We get:

$P=\frac{6}{40}\cdot \frac{5}{39}\\\\P=\frac{1}{52}$

Therefore, the probability is P=1/52.

b) We calculate the probability that the both parts are defective, if two parts are drawn randomly one at a time with replacement.

The probability for the first is 6/40.

The probability for the second is 6/40.

We get:

$P=\frac{6}{40}\cdot \frac{6}{40}\\\\P=\frac{9}{400}$

Therefore, the probability is P=9/400.

6 0

3 years ago

Q6 Q19.) Write the expression as the sine, cosine, or tangent of an angle. Then find the exact value of the expression.

Greeley [361]

Using sin(A+B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB

sin20cos40 + cos20sin40 = sin(20+40) = sin60degree

= $\frac{ \sqrt{3}}{ 2}$

3 0

3 years ago

25 points and brainiest<br> What is a fraction and how do you use it?

zheka24 [161]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A fraction is literally a division question in one number. You can use it to determine parts of something (parts of a whole)

3 0

4 years ago