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3 years ago

Please help with this dilation

Mathematics

1 answer:

GaryK [48]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

k= 1/4 m=16

Step-by-step explanation:

7 over 28 is 1/4 and 4 times 4 is 16

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Simplify the ratio 40 : 28 Please show work! If your able too :)

otez555 [7]

Answer:

10:7

Step-by-step explanation:

ratios are simply just like fractions!

this ratio (40:28) can be re-written as 40/28

now, you can simplify this to its lowest terms

40/28=20/14=10/7

first in those steps i re wrote the question, then divided by two, then divided by two again !

so, 40:28=10:7

--------------------------------

you can even check this by cross multiplying, since ratios are fractions

$\frac{40}{28} =\frac{10}{7}$

40x7=28x10

280=280

they are equivalent which means our ratio is correct :)

hope this helped <333

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please solve :)))))))

ad-work [718]

Answer:

x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

We can solve this equation using a mix of simplifying and using arithmetic on both sides:

6-4x=7x-9x+4

6-4x=-2x+4

2-4x=-2x

2=2x

1=x

x=1

8 0

3 years ago

I really need help with this pls.

prisoha [69]

H= V / pi r^2

and

a= 2A / p

3 0

3 years ago

You are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5. What is the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races

Veronika [31]

Answer:

The probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is 0.54432.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that you are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5.

There are total of 6 races.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

$P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....$

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 6 races

r = number of success = at most 2 lost

p = probability of success which in our question is probability that

you lose a race = 1 - (3/5) = 2/5 or 0.4

Let X = Number of races lost

So, X ~ Binom(n = 6, p = 0.40)

Now, the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is given by = P(X $\leq$ 2)

P(X $\leq$ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

= $\binom{6}{0} \times 0.40^{0} \times (1-0.40)^{6-0} + \binom{6}{1} \times 0.40^{1} \times (1-0.40)^{6-1} + \binom{6}{2} \times 0.40^{2} \times (1-0.40)^{6-2}$

= $1 \times1 \times 0.60^{6} + 6 \times 0.40^{1} \times 0.60^{5} +15\times 0.40^{2} \times 0.60^{4}$

= 0.54432

7 0

3 years ago

Find the area of the circle below. Use 3.14 for pi

djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

Es igual a 28,26 centímetros2.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago