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olasank [31]
3 years ago
12

Find the measure of angle e. A. 70° B. 130° C. 100° D. 110°

Mathematics
1 answer:
bonufazy [111]3 years ago
4 0
Knowing about corresponding angles, we know that m∠d = 70°.

The sum of the measures of the angles d and g is equal to 180°. Or in other words, they are supplementary.

Knowing this, we can use algebra to build an equation and solve for g.

70° + m∠g = 180°
m∠g = 110°

And finally, using the knowledge of vertical lines, ∠g is complementary to ∠e.

So, m∠e is equal to 110°.
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For any approximately normal distribution, how can we find the relative frequency of the scores?
Juliette [100K]
<span>We can, transform the raw scores to z-scores and use the standard normal curve to find the relative frequency of the scores.

I hope this helped!</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Last week a candle store received $515.90 for selling 30 candles. Small candles sell for $11.25 and large candles sell for $22.4
alex41 [277]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

x+y=30  solve for x   x=30-y

substitute x with 30-y and solve

11.25x+22.4y=515.9

11.25(30-y)+22.4y=515.9

337.5+11.15y=515.9

11.15y=178.4

y=16

since we're solving for just large candles it's 16

if need small cangle number 30-16=14

8 0
3 years ago
two major league baseball players got a total of 204 hits. washington had 4 more than. sanchez. find the number of hits for each
dimulka [17.4K]
Sanchez had 100. Washington had 104.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Y=8x-4 find y and x intercept
dlinn [17]

Answer:

<h3>The x intercept is 1/2</h3><h3>The y intercept is - 4</h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 8x - 4

First to find the y intercept let x = 0

Substitute the value of x into the equation

That's

y = 8(0) - 4

y = - 4

<h3>The y intercept is - 4</h3>

To find the x intercept let y = 0

Substitute the value of y into the equation

that's

8x - 4 = 0

8x = 4

Divide both sides by 8

x = 1/2

<h3>The x intercept is 1/2</h3>

Hope this helps you

5 0
3 years ago
352 divided by 2 in long division please show work
baherus [9]

Step 1:

Start by setting it up with the divisor 2 on the left side and the dividend 352 on the right side like this:

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

Step 2:

The divisor (2) goes into the first digit of the dividend (3), 1 time(s). Therefore, put 1 on top:

1

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

Step 3:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (2 x 1 = 2) and write that answer below the dividend.

1

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

2

Step 4:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (3 - 2 = 1) and write the answer below.

1

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1

Step 5:

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (5) like this:

1

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

Step 6:

The divisor (2) goes into the bottom number (15), 7 time(s). Therefore, put 7 on top:

1 7

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

Step 7:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (2 x 7 = 14) and write that answer at the bottom:

1 7

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

1 4

Step 8:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (15 - 14 = 1) and write the answer at the bottom.

1 7

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

- 1 4

1

Step 9:

Move down the last digit of the dividend (2) like this:

1 7

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

- 1 4

1 2

Step 10:

The divisor (2) goes into the bottom number (12), 6 time(s). Therefore put 6 on top:

1 7 6

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

- 1 4

1 2

Step 11:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (2 x 6 = 12) and write the answer at the bottom:

1 7 6

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

- 1 4

1 2

1 2

Step 12:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (12 - 12 = 0) and write the answer at the bottom.

1 7 6

2 ⟌ 3 5 2

- 2

1 5

- 1 4

1 2

- 1 2

0

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.

The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.

Therefore, the answer to 352 divided by 2 calculated using Long Division is:

176

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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