The probability of there being zero males is given by:
Similarly the probability of there being zero females is also 1/16.
The probability there will be at least 1 male and 1 female is therefore:
The answer is: 7/8.
Answer:
0,4, That is the y intercept.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope I helped :)
To begin with, equivalent fractions represent the same part of a whole number. So I need to find a fraction, with a denominator of 20, that is the same value as 1/2:
1/2 = ?/20
1*10/2*10 = 10/20
Since the denominator needed to be 20, I multiplied the numerator and the denominator (1/2) by 10 to get 10/20. So, 1/2 and 10/20 are equivalent.
Answer:
<u><em>Answer is below</em></u>
Step-by-step explanation:
<u><em>Evaluate for h=−8,w=20</em></u>
<u><em>9+20/5+(5)(-8)</em></u>
<u><em>So therefore your answer would be -27</em></u>
Answer:
25.24 was the mark down
16.374%
Step-by-step explanation:
