Businesses see less demand and begin to lose money. Unemployment and interest rates rise, and consumers

Tennies Clinic uses client-visits as its measure of activity. During November, the clinic budgeted for 3,700 client-visits, but

Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

The correct answer is $814 Unfavorable because actual medical supplies is more than standard.

Explanation:

Actual Medical Supplies $26,768

Standard Medical Supplies for Actual Activity $25,954

(6.60*3,690+1,600)

Medical Supplies Spending Variance 814 Unfavorable

Therefore, The correct answer is $814 Unfavorable because actual medical supplies is more than standard.

3 0

3 years ago

ABC Co. expects to sell 2,200 units, give or take 10 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $8.43 and the expected fixe

topjm [15]

Answer:

Earning Before Interest and Taxes $3,704

Explanation:

Sales (2,200 * 16.25) 35,750

Less: Variable Costs (2,200 * 8.43) (18,546)

Contribution Margin 17,204

Less: Fixed Cost (9,500)

Depreciation Expense (4,000)

Earning Before Interest and Taxes $3,704

3 0

3 years ago

Your company manufactures two models of speakers, the Ultra Mini and the Big Stack. Demand for each depends partly on the price

Kipish [7]

Answer:

p1 = $259.53 p2 = $381.20

Explanation:

1. Find the revenue function.

This is a typical income maximization problem. Therefore, the first thing we should know is what are the revenues for each product.

Recall that the revenue is given by P * Q

1.a Find the revenue of the Ultra Mini (product 1):

$R_{1} = P_{1} Q_{1}$

$R_{1} =P_{1} (100,000 - 200P_{1} + 10P_{2} )$

$R_{1} =100,000P_{1} -200P_{1} ^{2} +10P_{2}P_{1}$

1.b Find the revenue of the Big Stack (product 2):

$R_{2} = P_{2} Q_{2}$

$R_{2} =P_{2} (150,000 + 10P_{1} - 200P_{2} )$

$R_{2} = 150,000P_{1+2} +10P_{1}P_{2} -200P_{2}^{2}$

2. Find the marginal revenues.

The revenue function must be derived from the price.

For product 1, we derive from P1:

$MR_{1} = 100,000 -400P_{1} +10P_{2}$

For product 2, we derive from P2:

$MR_{2} = 150,000 + 10P_{1} - 400P_{2}$

3. Create a system of linear equations in two unknowns

With the marginal revenue functions we create a system of linear equations in two unknowns (p1 and p2) and equal 0.

$100,000 - 400P_{1} +10P_{2} = 0\\150,000 + 10P_{1} -400P_{2} = 0$

4. Resolve the previous system

4.a. To make it easier, we can rethink the terms of the system like this:

$100,000 - 400P_{1} +10P_{2} = 0$ is the same as saying:

$P_{2} = \frac{-100,000 + 400P_{1} }{10}$

And $150,000 + 10P_{1} -400P_{2} = 0$ is the same as saying:

$P_{2}=\frac{150,000+10P_{1} }{400}$

Therefore:

$\frac{-100,000 + 400P_{1} }{10} =\frac{150,000+10P_{1} }{400}$

Notice that now we only have one unknown (P1).

4.b. In order to eliminate fractionals, we can multiply both terms by 400:

$\frac{400}{10} (-100,000 + 400P_{1} ) = \frac{400}{400} (150,000 + 10P_{1} )$

$(40)(-100,000+400P_{1}) =150,000+10P_{1}$

$-4,000,000+16,000P_{1} =150,000+10P_{1}$

4.c. We solve the equation, putting numbers on one side and unknowns on the other:

$-4,000,000-150,000=10P_{1} -16,000P_{1}$

$-4,150,000=-15,990P_{1}$

$\frac{-4,150,000}{-15,990} =P_{1}$

$P_{1} = $ 259.53$

4.d. Once P1 has been identified, we replace it in any of the terms of the original system of equations (those established in 4.a).

$P_{2}= \frac{-100,000+400(259.53)}{10}$

$P_{2} = 381.20$

5 0

3 years ago

An investor purchased 100 shares of the cdl growth and income fund 3 years ago when the pop was $12 and the nav was $11.50. all

Norma-Jean [14]

The investor will show a capital loss of $155.

We gather the following information from this question:

Pop of the fund three years ago : $12

NAV of the fund three years ago : $11.50

Current Pop : $11

Current NAV : $10.45

Number of shares : 100 shares.

We need to calculate capital loss or gain on the 100 shares in the mutual fund.

While taking the cost per unit, we need to consider the public-offer-price (pop) into consideration, since an investor can only buy the shares at pop.

Similarly, while selling the shares, the shareholder can liquidate his position by selling back to the mutual fund at the NAV prevailing at the end of the business day on which he wants to sell.

So, the formula to calculate capital gain or loss is:

$Capital gain or (loss) = (NAV per unit at liquidation - POP at purchase ) * No. of shares$

$Capital gain or (loss) = ($10.45 - $12 ) * 100$

$Capital gain or (loss) = ($155)$

3 0

3 years ago

Opportunity cost is defined as A. the monetary expense associated with an activity. B. the highest valued alternative that must

Ratling [72]

Answer:

B. the highest valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Explanation:

Opportunity Cost is the cost of next best alternative foregone while choosing an alternative.

Eg1: If I like Chapati more than rice & rice more than curd, the opportunity cost of consuming chapati is the next best option i.e rice.

Eg2 : Working as school teacher with salary 20000, next best option salary as coaching tutor i.e 10000 is the Opportunity Cost

A is inapt : Opportunity cost can be monetary or non monetary. Eg2 has monetary opportunity cost. But, Eg 1 has opportunity cost in terms of rice' (sacrifised) satisfaction.

C is inapt : Opportunity cost is only the cost of next best alternative & not all alternatives. Eg1 - Curd i.e 3rd best option after chapati, is not the opportunity cost after chapati.

4 0

3 years ago