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Evgesh-ka [11]
2 years ago
15

PLEASE HELP! I"LL MARK BRAINLIEST!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
uranmaximum [27]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a is -1, -2

b is -1, 2

c is 2, 2

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope i helped

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Wayne drove 2 miles west and then 6 miles south, how far is he from his starting point?
suter [353]

Answer:

8 miles away

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the 6 miles and the 2 miles together.

6 0
3 years ago
Leonardo da Vinci drew a portrait of a young woman. The portrait is shaped like a rectangle. It is 13.5 inches long and 10 inche
ivann1987 [24]
Let
x---------------> long side rectangle------------> 13.5 in
y---------------> wide side rectangle------------> 10 in
d--------------> <span>length of a diagonal
</span>
we know <span>applying the Pythagorean theorem
</span>d²=x²+y²-----------> d²=13.5²+10²-> d²=282.25
d=√282.25=16.80 in

the answer is 16.8 in
3 0
3 years ago
Find the value of x. help please
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

x=10

Step-by-step explanation:

It's a 90 degree angle.

90-60=30

30=the remaining angle, 3x

x=30/3, or 10

Hope I helped!

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the complete factorization of the polynomial below?<br>x^3 - 4x^2 + x-4​
postnew [5]

Answer:

<h2>B. (x-4)(x+i)(x-i) </h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

x³-4x²+x-4=

=x²(x-4)+(x-4)

=(x-4)(x²+1)

=(x+4)(x-i²)

<h3>=(x-4)(x+i)(x-i) </h3>

5 0
3 years ago
Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
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