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bekas [8.4K]
2 years ago
13

If a company paid $38,000 of its accounts payable in cash, what was the effect on the accounting equation? Multiple Choice Asset

s would decrease $38,000, liabilities would decrease $38,000, and equity would decrease $38,000. Assets would decrease $38,000, liabilities would decrease $38,000, and equity would increase $38,000. Assets would decrease $38,000, liabilities would decrease $38,000, and equity remains unchanged. There would be no effect on the accounts because the accounts are affected by the same amount. Assets would increase $38,000 and liabilities would decrease $38,000.
Business
1 answer:
Tom [10]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Assets increase by $75,000 and liabilities increase by $75,000.

Explanation:

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An llc offers personal liability protection while also keeping the advantage of __________.
olchik [2.2K]
The answer that would best complete the given statement above would be option D. An llc offers personal liability protection while also keeping the advantage of PASS-THROUGH TAXATION USER. This is a special structure for business which is used to reduce the effects of double <span>taxation. Hope this answer helps.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Which interface allows remote management of a layer 2 switch?.
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

<em><u>The </u></em><em><u>switch </u></em><em><u>virtual</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>interface</u></em>

________________________________

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7 0
2 years ago
You would like to know the minimum level of sales that is needed for a project to be accepted based on its net present value.
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

C. financial break-even point.

Explanation:

Break even point in economics is the point in the business, wherein cost and revenue generated are equal and business make no profit, no loss. Similary Financial break even has a same concept, however, it is a point in business, wherein earning before EBIT is equal to the fixed financial cost of the company and these fixed costs should be earned by the company to run its business and meet its fixed financial obligation. The earning above the financial break-even point is a profit to the shareholder.

Point in financial break even, wherein earning per share is equal to zero.

8 0
3 years ago
Matt inherited as a trust a fifteen-year annuity-immediate with annual payments. He has been told that the annuity payments earn
Pavel [41]

Answer:

effective annual interest rate = 6.32%

annual payment = $1,585

Explanation:

I believe that this is an ordinary annuity, so we can use the future and present value of an ordinary annuity formula:

FV = annual payment x FV annuity factor, so annual payment = FV / FV annuity factor

PV = annual payment x PV annuity factor, so annual payment = PV / PV annuity factor

we can equal both equations:

PV / PV annuity factor = FV / FV annuity factor

FV / PV = FV annuity factor / PV annuity factor

$37,804.39 / $15,077.10 = FV annuity factor / PV annuity factor

2.5074 = FV annuity factor / PV annuity factor

the easiest way to solve this is to use an annuity table since we already know that there are 15 periods (I used an excel spreadsheet):

%,15 periods      FV annuity factor     PV annuity factor        FV/PV

1                                 16.097                   13.865                      1.1609

2                                17.293                   12.849                      1.34586

3                                18.599                    11.938                      1.55797

4                               20.024                     11.118                       1.80104

5                                21.579                   10.380                      2.07890

<u>6                               23.276                   9.7122                       2.3966</u>

<u>7                                25.129                   9.1079                       2.7590</u>

8                                27.152                   8.5595                       3.1721

9                                29.361                   8.0607                      3.6425

10                               31.772                   7.6061                         4.4112

The interest rate must be between 6 and 7%:

%,15 periods      FV annuity factor     PV annuity factor        FV/PV

6                               23.276                   9.7122                       2.3966

6.1                             23.45404              9.6461                       2.43145

6.2                            23.63369              9.5858                      2.46549

6.3                            23.81491               9.52467                     2.50034

6.31                           23.83312               9.51851                     2.50387

<u>6.32                          23.85135               9.51236                     2.5074</u>

6.4                            23.99773              9.46337                     2.53585

effective interest rate = 6.32% per year

annual payment = $37,804.39 / 23.85135 = $1,585

           

6 0
3 years ago
Being a first mover in a market is advantageous for a firm because: Group of answer choices it may have an opportunity to free r
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

Being a first mover in a market is advantageous for a firm because:

it may gain advantage through proprietary technology.

Explanation:

First mover advantage is a concept used to call the advantage a certain business has by starting to profit from an industry or sector before anyone else. It provides the advantage of experience and learning. Therefore, they gain advantage through proprietary technology by developing it to increase the efficiency of their resources.

4 0
3 years ago
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