Answer:
Prevent its currency from losing value too quickly.
Explanation:
Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a:
- 0.0036 = 0.36% probability that both are allergic to pollen.
- 0.1164 = 11.64% probability that at least one is allergic to pollen.
<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>
The formula is:
![P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%3D%20x%29%20%3D%20C_%7Bn%2Cx%7D.p%5E%7Bx%7D.%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-x%7D)
![C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C_%7Bn%2Cx%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7Bn%21%7D%7Bx%21%28n-x%29%21%7D)
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
Researching the problem on the internet, it is found that:
- 6% of the population is allergic to pollen, hence p = 0.06.
- Two people are chosen at random, hence n = 2.
The probability that both are allergic is P(X = 2), hence:
P(X = 2) = 0.06^2 = 0.0036.
0.0036 = 0.36% probability that both are allergic to pollen.
The probability of at least one is:
P(X >= 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.94^2 = 1 - 0.8836 = 0.1164.
0.1164 = 11.64% probability that at least one is allergic to pollen.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
Answer:
A Positive
Explanation:
I got the question right on the test.