1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
kaheart [24]
2 years ago
10

How did Indians gain power in some areas after European colonization began?

History
1 answer:
Rasek [7]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

mark me Brainliest plz

Explanation:

The industrial revolution was a shift from the old methods of manufacturing to the new methods, this took place from 1760 to sometime between 1820 and 1840. After the industrial revolution, areas which were rich in its resources such as rubber and petroleum began to become the colonies of the European powers

You might be interested in
In economics, the concept of "margin" means __________.
frutty [35]
<span>A small amount of something that is bought or sold.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which part of the Great Compromise benefits states with smaller populations?
Alisiya [41]
He Great Compromise was forged in a heated dispute during the 1787 Constitutional Convention: States with larger populations wanted congressional representation based on population, while smaller states demanded equal
6 0
2 years ago
Define sweatshops. Do these still exist today anywhere in the world?
patriot [66]

Answer:

sweatshops are hard labor with little pay and little to no hygiene, these sweathsops could also have many safety hazards such as no fire exits, the sweatshop owners mistreat the workers

Sweatshops still exist they are most common in the east such as asia, china, etc.

4 0
2 years ago
What did it mean that India was the "Jewel in the Crown”?
Svetach [21]
They had<span> all sorts of goods that the British wanted. These included things like spices, textiles, cotton, and the opium that the British </span>would<span> sell in China to be able to buy tea. Because </span>India had<span> so many people and so much wealth, it was the "</span>jewel in the crown<span>" of the British Empire.

Hope this helps!</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Why was there such a strong anti-Catholic sentiment in America during the 1800s?
s2008m [1.1K]
The Americans hostility towards the clergy, adherents, and the Catholic Church during the 1800s was rooted to their desires to maintain the white, Protestant nation. The reform even led to religious discrimination and violence. Therefore, the answer to this question is most probably letter D. 
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Was bill clinto a republican when he was president of the united states?
    13·1 answer
  • The 1950s are called the decade of conformity and the company man what does that mean
    14·1 answer
  • How did the medieval Catholic Church apply its political power?
    13·2 answers
  • The south looked at slavery as an economic issue. the north viewed slavery as what kind of issue?
    11·2 answers
  • How long did the mexican-american war last
    7·2 answers
  • __________ is defined as the art of conducting relations with other countries, including negotiating alliances, treaties, and tr
    6·1 answer
  • Why did France and Britain declare<br> war on Germany?
    14·2 answers
  • Under the aristocracy, Athenian wealth and power grew. Yet discontent spread among ordinary people.
    15·1 answer
  • Which of the following explains a difference between a hot and cold war? (4 points)
    12·2 answers
  • Hi any boy is online and comment​
    11·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!