Answer:
-7,759.29 dollar
Explanation:
cost of maintenance and operation
initial cost of $5500 x 20%
= 1100 Dollars
salvage value
initial cost of $5500 x 5%
= $275
pw = -5500-1100(p/a,17%,3) +275(p/f,17%,3)
pw = -5500-(1100*2.21) + (275*0.6244)
pw = -5500-2431+17.71
= -7759.29
so pw, that is present worth of new stations using internal MARR of 17% is -7759.29 dollars
The fee that the lender should charge to ensure they get a yield of 5% on a fixed 4.25% loan is <u>0.75%</u>.
<h3>What is the lender's yield?</h3>
The lender's yield is the implicit interest rate charged to the borrower. The lender's yield can also be described as the internal rate of return for the lender, given the loan's discounted cash flows. The lender's yield is usually annualized, it is quoted as a rate per year.
Thus, for the lender to enjoy a yield of 5% on a 4.25% fixed-rate loan, the lender's fees should include at least <u>0.75%</u> (5% - 4.25%).
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Answer:
Explanation:
Amount of Bolton Company inventory = 38,972
Calculations are attached
1. Find net realizable value, which is selling price - cost of disposal;
2. Then subtract normal profit from net realizable value = [g];
3. Find designated market value by choosing the middle value of cost to replace, net realizable value and [g];
4. Choose lowest between designated market value and selling price;
5. Multiply by quantity.
Answer: b. Sales Returns, Wages, Machinery, Discount Allowed
Explanation:
Sales returns reduce the sales made. Sales are put on the credit side so transactions that will reduce sales such as sales returns would have to go on the debit side.
Wages are an expense and expenses are debited to show they are increasing so they have a debit balance.
Machinery is an asset and assets have debit balances.
Discount allowed reduces the sales balance and as mentioned above, transactions that reduce sales go on the debit side so this has a debit balance as well.
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