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Ilya [14]
3 years ago
15

The Oakland Mills Company has disclosed the following financial information in its annual reports for the period ending March 31

, 2013: sales of $1,430,000, costs of goods sold of $816,000, depreciation expenses of $175,000, and interest expenses of $89,575. Assume that the firm has a tax rate of 35 percent. Compute the cash flows to investors from operating activity. (Round answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25.) Cash flow from operating activity $
Business
1 answer:
Dmitry [639]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The cash flows to investors from operating activity is $402,126.25

Explanation:

For computing the cash flow from operating activity, first, we have to compute the net income which is shown below:

= Sales - cost of goods sold - depreciation expense - interest expense - income tax expense

where,

The income tax expense equals to

= (Sales - cost of goods sold - depreciation expense - interest expense) × income tax rate  

= $1,430,000 - $816,000 - $175,000 - $89,575) × 35%

= $122,298.75

The other items values would remain the same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $1,430,000 - $816,000 - $175,000 - $89,575 - $122,298.75

= $227,126.25

Now the cash flow from operating activity equals to

= Net income + depreciation expense

= $227,126.25 + $175,000

= $402,126.25

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Non-cumulative i<em>s the exact opposite of the case . Here, unpaid dividends are not paid in arrears in fact such are forfeited for life.</em>

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Dividend paid in Year 1 was $ 4000 but ought to be $5,000 (5%× 10,000 × $10). An arrear of $1000

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How do you determine retained earnings at year end
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Andreyy89

Answer:

Do =  $2.00

D1= Do(1+g)1 =  $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40

D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88

D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456

D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472

D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664

PHASE 1

V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5

V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5

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V1 = $11.3824

PHASE 2

V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      

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