1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
luda_lava [24]
2 years ago
7

Identify and explain whether or not India experienced relative progress or decline under British rule.

History
1 answer:
Alexxandr [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Food shortages came about because Indians were growing cash crops. When famine struck in 1876-77 and 1899-1900 the British system of government was completely overwhelmed and could not organise a big enough relief effort. As well as these massive famines, there were many other smaller, more localised famines.

Explanation:

They forced the commercialisation of agriculture with the growing of various cash crops and the raw materials for the industries in the Britain. With the strong political control, the British were able to monopolise the trade with India. They defeated their foreign rivals in trade so that there could be no competition.

You might be interested in
Every place on Earth has a specific . (region/location)
netineya [11]

Answer:

Explanation:

region

6 0
3 years ago
Why is Tutankhamun called the boy king?<br> PLZZ FAST
jekas [21]

Answer:

Tut is called the boy king, because he became king when he was either 8 or 9. He died when he was 19.

3 0
3 years ago
1. How did World War 1 affect the economy of Texas?
Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

You might have got this but here: (Sorry if they're wrong i'm only in 7th grade sooo the best thing I would do is look them up.)

Explanation:

1.  Economy decreased due to the depression coming. So C.

2.  I'm guessing D or B. (D being the best guess.)

3.  I'd say D or B. (D being the best guess.)

4. C.

5. B.

4 0
4 years ago
Explain why the big three did not get everything they wanted at the treaty of versailles
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

Explanation:

UK: The UK wanted the British Empire to reign supreme and free access to seas in peacetime, however knew that making the treaty too harsh would provoke another war (foreshadowing)

France: France wanted Germany to be partitioned into separate states, which was basically pre-brothers war Germany. They wanted the Germans to be banned from ever uniting again.

US: The US wanted its 14 points to become the image of the League of Nations. However not all of these 14 points were met and the US soon returned to its isolationist pre-war policy.

4 0
2 years ago
What was the immediate impact of Black Tuesday
Aleks [24]
All stock market invests went completEly down
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • How did the alliance system help contribute to the start of world war 1?
    10·2 answers
  • Who overthrew the kamakura government? dinh tien hoang ashikaga takauji ly bi tai and nan-chao rebels
    12·2 answers
  • In the optimal exercise what was the purpose of inoculating tsa
    9·1 answer
  • Why did many russians oppose peter the greats attempts at westernization
    5·1 answer
  • How might scientists be able to use fossils to infer that the climate of the central United States was a lush subtropical forest
    8·1 answer
  • What most fundamentally aided the spread of Enlightenment ideas from Europe to America?
    13·2 answers
  • Which is the closest antonym for the word approve?
    13·2 answers
  • In what year was a lightbulb created? and see a drawing made by me of Tsukishima Kei!​
    5·2 answers
  • Which of the following individuals has
    11·2 answers
  • Da Gama opened a sea route from Europe to Antarctica?<br> TRUE<br> FALSE
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!