Answer:
As in England, and some Western European Countries that began to industrialize earlier than the U.S. (Belgium, the Netherlands, Germany, and France), industrialization brought massive changes to American workers.
For one, decade after decade more people moved to the cities, and less people stayed in the countryside as farmers. A big difference is that farmers in the U.S. frequently owned the land while industrial workers did not own the factories.
This means that workers make a living by earning a wage for their work in the factory, while farmers usually make a living either by consuming the food they produce, or by selling the food, or a combination of both. This gives a greater autonomy and power to the farmer, but not necessarily a higher income.
<span>Assuming that this is referring to the same list of options that was posted before with this question, <span>the correct response would be if the slave had been "born in a free state," since this would imply that he was never the "property" of the slave owner in question. </span></span>
This should be in your textbook, it’s impossible to answer without the reference material
