Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
f(-3) = 2^-3
to get rid of a negative in an exponent, move the whole thing to the denominator.
1/(2^3)
2^3 = 2×2×2
1/(2×2×2)
1/8
Answer:
answer below
Step-by-step explanation:
ABCDE go through dilation over center (6 , -2) with factor of 1/2 to FGHIJ
AB // FG slope: -2 , √20:√5 = 2: 1
BC // GH // X axis 8:4 = 2:1
CD // HI, slope= 1 , √8:√2 = 2:1
DE // IJ // x axis, 4:2 = 2:1
EA // JF // y axis, 2:1
Answer:
D 6
Step-by-step explanation:
substitute in 1 for x
2(1)= 2
2+4= 6
y=6 when x=1
Answer:
43
Step-by-step explanation:
the only prime number in between those numbers is 43.
Answer:
1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
coins have 2 sides, tails and heads, so for it to land on tails is a 1/2 chance. Dice have 6 sides and 1,3,5 are all odd so its a 3/6 chance. Simplify 3/6 to 1/2 and multiply by 1/2 to get 1/4. im not sure, its my guess.
