Answer:
e. All of the above are inputs required for capital budgeting analysis.
Explanation:
All of the given parameters are inputs required for capital budgeting analysis. is an input required for a multinational capital budgeting analysis, given that it is conducted from the parent's viewpoint.
a. Salvage value
Salvage value is the estimated resale value of an asset at the end of its useful life. It is an applicable cashflow in investment appraisal
b. Price per unit sold
This is the parameter used to calculate the amount of revenue which is the first line of cashflows in an investment appraisal
c. Initial investment
This is the amount that is first spent on capital acquisition of machinery or construction, it is a cashflow in year 0, of investment appraisal
d. Consumer demand
This is the another parameter used to calculate the amount of revenue which is the first line of cashflows in an investment appraisal
Answer:
table of contents
Explanation:
Table of contents, usually put at the beginning or end of a document, lists the chapter and section of the document, together with their page numbers. This is the widely used method that makes literature more readable and searchable.
So, Melanie needs to create a table of contents, so her readers will be able to find specific sections after glancing at it.
Answer:
B.
Penetration pricing
Explanation:
Penetration pricing is a strategy that is used by new companies in a market to capture market share from more established competitors. The process is for the new company to charge a lesser price than the amount that the other companies are charging which will bring people to the new firm for patronage.
It will thus capture market share and due to the high demand, be able to make profits due to Economies of Scale.
By charging less than its competitors, the new bar's owner is most likely pursuing a Penetration Strategy.
Answer:
Under CAPM:
Re = Rf + Beta(Rm - Rf)
Rf = 5%
Rm - Rf = 6%
Beta = 1.25
Re = 5% + (1.25 x 6%) = 12.5%
Under dividend discount model:
Re = (Div₁ / P₀) + g
Div₁ = $1.20
P₀ = $35
g = 8%
Re = ($1.20 / $35) + 8% = 11.43%
Under bond yield plus risk premium approach:
Re = Pre-tax cost of debt + risk premium over its own debt
Pre-tax cost of debt = 7%
risk premium over its own debt = 4%
Re = 7% + 4% = 11%
The highest cost of equity results from the CAPM model and it is 12.5% while the lowest results from using the bond yield plus risk approach (11%), the difference is 1.5% between them.
