Answer:
1/16
Step-by-step explanation:
There is a 50% chance of it being a boy or a girl also known as 1/2
So the first baby has a 1/2 chance, same for the second, and third, Which means that there is a 1/2, then another 1/2 and another 1/2. So you would have to multiply them all, 1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/8. For the girl, again, it is 1/2 chance of being a girl, while the other 1/2 is a boy. So 1/8*1/2 is 1/16. So the probability so the women having 3 boys then a girl, is 1/16.
Hope this helps
Answer:
What Wally did wrong is that it is supposed to be (4a-5)(a-4)
In order to get -21 a. He was supposed to use negative 5 and 4 to get to negative 21
If he used (4a+5)(a+5)
The answer will be positive 21 and that's not what the problem is asking
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
Required
Round up to highest place value
Highest place value here is thousand.
So:
, when approximated
Highest place value here is ten thousand.
So:
, when approximated
Highest place value here is ten thousand.
So:
when approximated
Highest place value here is ten thousand.
So:
when approximated
Highest place value here is ten thousand.
So:
when approximated
Answer:
<h3>CHOICE A.</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
<em><u>There are 2 p’s and 3 q’s. So it is choice a.</u></em>
Answer:
The procedure for this case is add three, then divide by 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
if y=5x-3
to find the inverse, we exchange x and y then solve for the new y.
x=5y-3 add 3
x+3 = 5y divide by 5
(x+3)/5 = y
or
inverse, y=(x+3)/5
The procedure for this case is add three, then divide by 5.
