Help PLease 20 Points

Mathematics

2 answers:

inysia [295]3 years ago

6 0

I think it is the first one {-1,0,1,3} because domain is the x values, while range is the y values. Since we are looking at the x values, you can see that there are points at (-1, 1), (0, -2), (1, 3), and (3, 0). If you look at the coordinate pairs (remember that these pairs occur in an (x, y) fashion) you can see that the x values happen to be at -1, 0, 1, and 3 or {-1, 0, 1, 3}. With this, I think the first choice is the answer.

I hope this makes sense and helps! :)

sergij07 [2.7K]3 years ago

5 0

2(-2,0 1, 3) that’s the answer I’m just trying to get some points I don’t know either

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otez555 [7]

Answer:

4353.5

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

How do you find the normal approximation without using the continuity correction?

Dennis_Churaev [7]

Let's say you want to compute the probability $\mathbb P(a\le X\le b)$ where $X$ converges in distribution to $Y$ , and $Y$ follows a normal distribution. The normal approximation (without the continuity correction) basically involves choosing $Y$ such that its mean and variance are the same as those for $X$ .

Example: If $X$ is binomially distributed with $n=100$ and $p=0.1$ , then $X$ has mean $np=10$ and variance $np(1-p)=9$ . So you can approximate a probability in terms of $X$ with a probability in terms of $Y$ :

$\mathbb P(a\le X\le b)\approx\mathbb P(a\le Y\le b)=\mathbb P\left(\dfrac{a-10}3\le\dfrac{Y-10}3\le\dfrac{b-10}3\right)=\mathbb P(a^*\le Z\le b^*)$

where $Z$ follows the standard normal distribution.