Answer:
50% or 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
The chance of a coin landing on tails is always 50/50
The answer is "quadrant II" because first u go five left because of the negative five which is on the x axis then go up 10 because of the positive 10 which on the y axis
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
its 0 i think
<span> f(x)=4x^8+7x^7+1x^6+
</span>∴<span> f(-2)=4(-2)^8+7(-2)^7+1(-2)^6+1
</span>∴ <span>f(-2)=(4x256) + (7x-128) + (1x64) +1
</span>∴ <span>f(-2)=1024 - 896 + 64 +1
</span>∴ <span>f(-2)= 193</span>
Answer:
Answer A
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer A indicates some minimal value for the set of points to the left (negative side of the distribution) which are associated with negative skewness since the mean is at 22 also with larger deviation to the left shown in the median of the points to the left further to the negative side of the plot.
Answers B and C show symmetric distributions (no skewness at all).
Answer D would represent skewness to the right (positively skewed)
So the correct answer is answer A.
