Answer:
C. $50,000
Explanation:
Under IFRS section IAS 36, an impairment loss results from an asset's carrying value being lower than its fair market value or value in use. In this case, the fair market value of the asset (the price at which it could be sold) is $300,000, while its value in use is $400,000 (discounted to present value). In order to calculate the impairment loss, we must use the highest, in this case the value in use.
Impairment loss = $450,000 (carrying value) - $400,000 (value in use) = $50,000
Answer:
Debit Bad debt expenses with 17,280; and Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts also with $17,280.
Explanation:
Bad expenses = ($284,000 × 7%) - $2,600 = $17,280
The adjusting will be as follows:
<u>Details Dr ($) Cr ($) </u>
Bad debt expenses 17,280
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 17,280
<u><em>To record the amount estimated to be uncollectible </em></u>
Answer:
Contractionary
Explanation:
There is no such a thing as Contractionary spending. The only 3 categories used for federal expending are: mandatory spending, discretionary spending and interest on debt.
Answer:
Correct control of operational risk related with customized software piece is creating a guarantee of the capacity to replicate the custom piece in case of future problems.
Explanation:
In this case, if it is considered that the custom software piece is too specific for the company, a negotiation with the vendor establishing the company ownership and development of the custom software in control of the company is critical
Answer:
$20.64
Explanation:
Use the rate of return formula to solve for the new price;
r = ( P1 +Div1 -P0)/P0
whereby;
r = rate of return = 10.8% or 0.108 as a decimal
Div1 = Next year's dividend amount = $0.51
P1 = next year's stock price =?
P0 = Current stock price = $19.09
Next, plug in the numbers to the formula;
0.108 = (P1 + 0.51 - 19.09) / 19.09
Multiply both sides by 19.09;
2.0617 = P1 -18.58
Add 18.58 on both sides;
2.0617 + 18.58 = P1
20.64 = P1
Therefore, you need to sell the share at $20.64