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xz_007 [3.2K]
3 years ago
7

Write an equation in slope-intercept form of the line that passes through the points.

Mathematics
1 answer:
kupik [55]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

y=-2x

Step-by-step explanation:

M= y2-y1/x2-x1

  = 6-0/-3-0

  = 6/-3

 = -2

when X is 0 Y is also so C is 0

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9 cm
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

∴ ∠BAD = sin^{-1}(0.2044) = 11.8°

Step-by-step explanation:

i) AD = 9 cm

ii) DC = 3 cm

iii) ∠BCD = 35°

iv) Since AB is parallel to DC and ∠ABD = 90°  then we can conclude that ∠BDC = 90°.

v) \frac{BD}{DC}  =  \frac{BD}{3\hspace{0.1cm}cm}  = tan(35) = 0.6128      ∴ BD  = 3 \times 0.6128 = 1.84 cm

vi) ∴ sin(∠ BAD ) = \frac{BD}{AD}      ⇒     sin(∠ BAD ) = \frac{1.84}{9} = 0.2044

     ∴ ∠BAD = sin^{-1}(0.2044) = 11.8°

7 0
4 years ago
PLEASE HELP!
Mashcka [7]
4x1/2=2. 2 is less than 4 so it shows that it is false.
3 0
3 years ago
Plz solve I’ve been stuck on how to start it and I just can’t
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

x and y = 0

the question looks weird and almost wrong because when you subtract the equations, you are left with nothing

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the top equation by 3 to make the -x a -3x instead.

Then do the top equation - the bottom equation

At this point you should be left with x

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
6. An urn contains 15 red balls and 8 blue balls. In each draw, one ball is extracted at random. It is then returned to the urn,
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

P(C4) = 0.0711

Step-by-step explanation:

consider the first draw = 15/23  since it cannot be a blue ball

The second draw = 21/29 since 6 more red balls will be added after the draw since a blue ball cannot be drawn

the third draw = 27/35 since 6 more red balls will be added after each draw since a blue ball cannot be drawn

therefore the total number of red balls will be = 15 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 33 red balls after the 4th draw. the total ball now in the urn= 33 red + 4 blue = 41

Hence the probability of drawing a blue ball at the fourth draw after drawing red balls at the previous attempts = 8/41

P(C4) = P ( fourth ball is blue ) * P( first ball red)*P(second ball red) *P(third ball red )

= (8/41) * (15/23) * (21/29)* (27/35) = 0.0711

8 0
3 years ago
The mark obtained by six boys in a test are 20,25,15,30,28 and 16. Find the mean mark.​
omeli [17]

Answer:

22.3333333

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean = the sum of all of the numbers divided by the amount of numbers given. The sum (134) was divided by the number of numbers (6) to get 22.3333333. This is not 22 and 3 repeating, since my calculator would've rounded the last digit to 4.

8 0
2 years ago
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