Answer: truy cập vào link sau
-https://youtu.be/rvei2IHOju0
-https://webketoan.com/threads/1534258-tinh-don-gia-nhap-kho/
Explanation:
Most time, it is reasonable to refer to the opportunity cost as the price because it entails the benefit of the foregone good or service.
<h3>
What is an opportunity cost?</h3>
It refers to a value of what is rejected in order to perform the chosen alternative, that is, the value one have to give up to buy what you want in terms of other goods or services.
Therefore, it is sometimes reasonable to refer to the opportunity cost as the price because it entails the benefit of the foregone good or service.
Read more about opportunity cost
<em>brainly.com/question/1549591</em>
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Answer:
Statement true for Imperfect Competition Markets
Explanation:
Marginal Revenue Product is additional revenue due to hiring of additional input, it is product of marginal product & marginal revenue = MP x MR
Value Marginal Product is money value of additional production with additional input, product of marginal product (MP) & price (AR), = MP x AR
Input demand curves are derived demand curves, derived from demand of final goods. In perfect competition, demand is perfectly inelastic & horizontal, AR = MR, so MRP = VMP in this case. In imperfect competition market (oligopoly, monopoly etc) - MR < AR, so MRP < VMP in this case.
Answer:
$4,650,000,000
Explanation:
We will use the formula below to calculate the enterprise value of Correct inc.
Enterprise value = Market value capital and debts - Cash and investments
= 100 million diluted shares × 37.50 per share + $1 billion of debt outstanding - $100 million cash
= $3750m + $1000m - $100m
= $4,650,000,000.
Answer:
Total Check-able deposits to increase by $333.5 billion
Explanation:
If the bank reserves increase by $50 billion, the total check-able deposits will increase by 50 * the credit multiplier.
Credit multiplier is the measure by which an increase in total money supply can be measured relative to an increase in banks' excess reserves.
Credit Multiplier = 1 / reserve ratio
Credit Multiplier = 1 / 0.15 = 6.67
So an increase in excess reserves of 50 billion will have a net effect of 50 * 6.67 = $333.5 billion. This will be the net increase in total check-able deposits or the money supply.
Hope that helps.
