Should be the first option.
Since ABP is congruent to CBP in the 4th step, AP must be equal to CP
Answer:
To check all the events (6), we label the chips. Suppose one chip with 1 is labeled R1 and the other B1 (as if they were red and blue). Now, lets take all combinations; for the first chip, we have 4 choices and for the 2nd chip we have 3 remaining choices. Thus there are 12 combinations. Since we dont care about the order, there are only 6 combinations since for example R1, 3 is the same as 3, R1 for us.
The combinations are: (R1, B1), (R1, 3), (R1, 5), (B1, 3), (B1, 5), (3,5)
We have that in 1 out of the 6 events, Miguel wins 2$ and in five out of the 6 events, he loses one. The expected value of this bet is: 1/6*2+5/6*(-1)=-3/6=-0.5$. In general, the expected value of the bet is the sum of taking the probabilities of the outcome multiplied by the outcome; here, there is a 1/6 probability of getting the same 2 chips and so on. On average, Miguel loses half a dollar every time he plays.
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From the table, we can see that f(8) = 52
