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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
2 years ago
5

Imagine that a project manager creates a matrix with two variables: risk impact and probability. They use the matrix to measure

potential future losses to a project resulting from specific activities or events. What is the project manager trying to determine
Business
1 answer:
AnnZ [28]2 years ago
3 0

The project manger is trying to perform project risk analysis to determine the impact of potential losses on projects.

<h3>What is risk analysis?</h3>

Risk analysis is the process of identifying and analyzing potential losses arising from key business initiatives or projects, thereby helping the organization to manage the risks' impacts.

Using a probability and impact matrix as a table of values shows the probability of potential risks and their severity of impact. The probability and impact matrix serves as a technique for the project manager to perform risk analysis.

Thus, the project manager is trying to perform project risk analysis to determine the impact of potential losses on projects.

Learn more about risk analysis in project management at brainly.com/question/15296501

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You've just created and e-mailed the financial statements to your boss? What is the next step you should do in accounting cycle?
KonstantinChe [14]
<span>You've just created and e-mailed the financial statements to your boss. What is the next step you should do in accounting cycle? Close out the revenue and expense accounts. After the financial statements are prepared all nominal accounts which include the revenue and expenses, should be closed out to zero. This allows for the accounts to be at an even start for the next accounting cycle. 

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5 0
3 years ago
You put up $80 at the beginning of the year for an investment. The value of the investment grows 2% and you earn a dividend of $
Evgen [1.6K]

If the value of the investment grows 2% and you earn a dividend of $8.00. Your HPR was 12%.

<h3>HOLDING PERIOD RETURN (HPR)</h3>

Using this formula

HPR=Investment grow+(Dividend/Beginning investment)

Let plug in the formula

HPR=2% + ($8/$80)

HPR=2% +10%

HPR=12%

Therefore If the value of the investment grows 2% and you earn a dividend of $8.00. Your HPR was 12%.

Learn more about HPR here:brainly.com/question/20383546

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
The demand for one of X Company’s products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

$230,000

Revised Question:

The demand for one of X Company's products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment that originally cost $1,300,000 and has a carrying value of $720,000. As of the current date, December 31, 2012, it is expected that only an additional 400,000 units are likely to be sold over the remaining life of the equipment. Each unit sells for $3 and has a manufacturing cost of $1.50. Relevant information as of December 31, 2018:

The undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment is expected to be $600,000.

The present value of the future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment, calculated at the company's cost of capital, is $475,000.

The equipment has a fair value of $490,000 on the date of evaluation.

How much of an impairment loss will X Company recognize in 2018?

Explanation:

IAS 36 Impairment of Assets states that company's or entity's assets can not be carried at more than their Recoverable Amount

<em>Recoverable Amount</em> equals to higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use

<em>Value in Use</em> is net present value (NPV) of future cashflows generated by an asset.

Lets calculate the Recoverable amount of the equipment of Company X:

Fair Value less Cost of disposal = $490,000 - 0 = $490,000

Value in Use = discounted future cashflows from equipment =  $475,000

<em>So Recoverable Amount is higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use i.e $490,000</em>

<h3>Impairment Loss = Carrying Value - Recoverable Amount </h3><h3>                              = $720,000 - $490,000</h3><h3>                              = $230,000</h3>
5 0
3 years ago
McConnell Corporation has bonds on the market with 15.5 years to maturity, a YTM of 6.2 percent, a par value of $1,000, and a cu
VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

Coupon rate is 6.4%

Explanation:

The coupon payment on a bond can be computed from a formula of current price of a bond

current price of a bond=coupon amount/yield to maturity

coupon amount=current price *yield to maturity

current price is $1039

yield to maturity is 6.2%

coupon rate =$1039*6.2%

                    =$64.42

Coupon rate=coupon amount/par value of bond

coupon amount $64.42

par value of bond=$1000

coupon rate =$64.42/$1000

                     =6.4%

7 0
3 years ago
Frozen Delight, Inc. charges an initial franchise fee of $79,300 for the right to operate as a franchisee of Frozen Delight. Of
telo118 [61]

Answer:

Check attached file

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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