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pantera1 [17]
2 years ago
6

Saban Ironworks most recent reported free cash flow was $419.5 million. You project that the FCF will grow at a constant rate of

8% forever. If Saban's WACC is 12%, the firm has $2,580.5 million in outstanding debt, no preferred stock, and 250 million shares of common stock, what is the intrinsic value per share of the common stock assuming the firm holds only operating assets
Business
1 answer:
Olegator [25]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

On October 15, 2020, the board of directors of Ensor Materials Corporation approved a stock option plan for key executives. On January 1, 2021, 28 million stock options were granted, exercisable for 28 million shares of Ensor's $1 par common stock. The options are exercisable between January 1, 2024, and December 31, 2026, at 90% of the quoted market price on January 1, 2021, which was $10. The fair value of the 28 million options, estimated by an appropriate option pricing model, is $6 per option. Ensor chooses the option to recognize fonexpectedly to $26 per share.

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What an example of current Marketing situation of a business or service​
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]
It’s difficult for companies to market their movies since many people aren’t visiting theatres with Delata variant going on. Companies like Disney/Marvel recognise this and teased their “Black Widow”movie to Disney plus for people who refused to go to the theatres.
8 0
3 years ago
The portfolio that contains the average return on a combination of market index with the same beta is often called _____________
elena-s [515]

The portfolio that contains the common return on a mixture of market index with the same beta is often known as protection market line.

<h3>Is safety market line the same as CAPM?</h3>

The safety market line (SML) is a visual representation of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). SML is a theoretical representation of the predicted returns of belongings primarily based on systematic, non-diversifiable risk.

<h3>How do you study a security market line?</h3>

The two-dimensional correlation between anticipated return and beta can be calculated via the CAPM formula and expressed graphically via a safety market line, or SML. Any protection plotted above the SML is interpreted as undervalued. A safety under the line is overvalued.

Learn more about security market line here:

<h3>brainly.com/question/15877803</h3><h3 /><h3>#SPJ4</h3>
5 0
1 year ago
An advantage of the _____ costing method is that the cost of goods sold approximates its current cost.
Komok [63]

Answer:

weighted average

Explanation:

An advantage of the weighted average costing method is that the cost of goods sold approximates its current cost. This is mainly due to the fact that the cost of each unit is made equal to the same cost of all units that are currently available for sale during that extended period of business. Therefore approximating its total current cost.

8 0
2 years ago
McMahon Inc. reported the following on the company's statement of cash flows in 2016 and 2015:
podryga [215]

Answer:

$137,200; $103,600

Explanation:

In 2015:

Free cash flow:

= Net cash flow from operating activity - Capital expenditure

= $294,000 - (70% × $224,000)

= $294,000 - $156,800

= $137,200

In 2016:

Free cash flow:

= Net cash flow from operating activity - Capital expenditure

= $280,000 - (70% × $252,000)

= $280,000 - $176,400

= $103,600

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that an investor with a 10-year investment horizon is considering purchasing a 20-year 8% coupon bond selling for $900.
leonid [27]

Answer:

8.67%

Explanation:

PMT (Semi-annual coupon) = par value*coupon rate/2 = 1,000*8%/2 = 40

N (No of coupons paid) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual reinvestment rate) = 7%/2 = 3.5%

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(PMT, N, Rate)

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(40, 20, 3.5%)

Future value of reinvested coupons = $1,131.19

FV = 1,000

PMT (Semi-annual coupons) = 40

N (No of coupons pending) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual YTM) = 9%/2 = 4.5%

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(FV, PMT, N, RATE)

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(1000, 40, 20, 4.5%)

Price of the bond after 10 years = $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = Future value of reinvested coupons + Price of the bond after 10 years

Total amount after 10 years = $1,131.19 + $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = $2,066.15

Amount invested (Price of the bond now) = $900.

Total Annual Return = [(Total amount after 10 years / Amount invested)^(1/holding period)] -1

Total Annual Return = [($2,066.15/$900)^(1/10)] -1

Total Annual Return = [2.295722^0.1] - 1

Total Annual Return = 1.08665561792 - 1

Total Annual Return = 0.08665561792

Total Annual Return = 8.67%

7 0
3 years ago
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