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wlad13 [49]
3 years ago
7

Suppose that an investor with a 10-year investment horizon is considering purchasing a 20-year 8% coupon bond selling for $900.

The par value of the bond is $1000. The original YTM on the bond is 10%, but the investor expects that he can reinvest the coupon payments at an annual interest rate of 7% and that at the end of the investment horizon this 10-year bond will be selling to offer a yield of 9%. What is the total return for this bond
Business
1 answer:
leonid [27]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

8.67%

Explanation:

PMT (Semi-annual coupon) = par value*coupon rate/2 = 1,000*8%/2 = 40

N (No of coupons paid) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual reinvestment rate) = 7%/2 = 3.5%

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(PMT, N, Rate)

Future value of reinvested coupons = FV(40, 20, 3.5%)

Future value of reinvested coupons = $1,131.19

FV = 1,000

PMT (Semi-annual coupons) = 40

N (No of coupons pending) = 10*2 = 20

Rate (Semi-annual YTM) = 9%/2 = 4.5%

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(FV, PMT, N, RATE)

Price of the bond after 10 years = PV(1000, 40, 20, 4.5%)

Price of the bond after 10 years = $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = Future value of reinvested coupons + Price of the bond after 10 years

Total amount after 10 years = $1,131.19 + $934.96

Total amount after 10 years = $2,066.15

Amount invested (Price of the bond now) = $900.

Total Annual Return = [(Total amount after 10 years / Amount invested)^(1/holding period)] -1

Total Annual Return = [($2,066.15/$900)^(1/10)] -1

Total Annual Return = [2.295722^0.1] - 1

Total Annual Return = 1.08665561792 - 1

Total Annual Return = 0.08665561792

Total Annual Return = 8.67%

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Balance sheet and income statement data indicate the following:
Law Incorporation [45]

Answer:

The correct option is d. 5.5.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not properly arranged. It is therefore rearranged before answering the question as follows:

Balance sheet and income statement data indicate the following:

Bonds payable, 10% (due in two years)                              $842,000

Preferred 5% stock, $100 par (no change during year)       220,000

Common stock, $50 par (no change during year)             1,672,000

Income before income tax for year                                       376,000

Income tax for year                                                                  89,000

Common dividends paid                                                         83,600

Preferred dividends paid                                                          11,000

Based on the data presented, what is the times interest earned ratio (rounded to one decimal place)?

Oa. 7.9

Ob. 4.5

Oc. 3.5

Od. 5.5

The explanation of the answer is now given as follows:

The times interest earned ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Times interest earned ratio = EBIT / Interest expenses ................ (1)

Where;

Interest expenses = Bonds payable * 10% = $842,000 * 10% = $84,200

EBIT = Earnings before interest and taxes = Income before income tax for year + Interest expenses = $376,000 + $84,200 = $460,200

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Times interest earned ratio = $460,200 / $84,200 = 5.46555819477435

Rounded to one decimal place, we have:

Times interest earned ratio = 5.5

Therefore, the correct option is d. 5.5.

4 0
3 years ago
Use the graph to answer the question that follows. Graph has quantity along the horizontal axis and price along the vertical axi
Jlenok [28]

The statement that would describe the shift from D1 to D2 is Demand for the product increased.

<h3>Why was there a shift from D1 to D2?</h3>

D2 is a curve that is to the right of D1 which means that it represents a higher level of demand for goods and services.

This means that for the demand to move from D1 to D2, there must have been an increase in the demand for the good or service and this could have been for any number of reasons including a reduction in the price of complimentary goods.

Find out more on determinants of demand at brainly.com/question/1245771

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8 0
1 year ago
The unrecognized net gain or loss balance must be amortized when it exceeds 10% of the larger of the: beginning accumulated bene
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Answer:

beginning projected benefit obligation or the market-related asset value

Explanation:

The balance of the Unrecognized Net Gain or Loss account subject to amortization only if it exceeds 10% of the larger of the beginning balances of the projected benefit obligation or the market-related value of the plan assets.

Amortization is simply the procedure or the process of retiring a debt or recovering a capital investment. This can be done via scheduled, systematic repayment of the principal or a program of periodic contributions to a sinking fund or debt retirement fund.

4 0
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Diamond Company is considering investing in new equipment that will cost $1,400,000 with a 10-year useful life. The new equipmen
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Answer:

6.1 y

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Diamond Company

New equipment÷(Annual net income +Depreciation expense)

New equipment$1,400,000

Annual net income $90,000

Depreciation expense $140,000

$1,400,000 ÷ ($90,000 + $140,000)

=$1,400,000÷$230,000

= 6.1 y

Therefore the cash payback period will be 6.1 years

5 0
3 years ago
Free ponts <br> im only doing this bc i hate my life<br> and put se.xy anime grils on ur answer
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

I need these points really bad thx so much!!!!

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