Answer:
The value of the difference between the earnings per share (EPS) forecasts for Feast and Famine is $2.40
Explanation:
The solution is as evident in the attached Excel Sheet. In the excel sheet the formulas are used which are also given in the second sheet.
For the data values from the question are used.
Answer:
bond market value $660
Explanation:
We need to calculate the present value of the maturity and the cuopon payment using the effective rate of 9.7%
First we do the annuity:
C 24.25 (1,000 face value x 4.85 bond rate / 2 )
time 24.00 (12 year 2 payment a year)
rate 0.04850 (current rate divide by 2 to get it annually)
PV $339.55
Then present value of the maturity
Maturity 1,000.00 the face value of the bond
time 24.00
rate 0.04850
PV 320.89
Finally we add them together:
PV coupon payment $339.5545
PV maturity $320.8910
Total $660.4455
rounding to nearest dollar
bond market value $660
Answer:
S/N ACCOUNT DEBIT CREDIT
1 Equipment $22,000
Cash $22,000
Being payment for new component expected to increase the
equipment’s productivity by 10% a year
2. Equipment Repairs expenses $6,250
Cash $6,250
Being payment for equipment repair
3. Equipment $14,870
Cash $14,870
Being payment for equipment repair to prolong the useful life
the asset
Explanation:
The initial cost incurred in acquiring an asset is debited to asset account, subsequently every other cost spent on the assets are either expenses against the earning of that period or expensed over many years over the useful life of the asset.
Capitalization is the recognition of an expense as an asset in the balance sheet rather than expenses in the income statement.
The payment of $22,000 paid for the equipment productivity must be capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset because it is a cost that is expected to increase the equipment’s productivity by 10% a year.
The $6,250 paid for normal repair is a revenue items which is to be expensed against the earning of that period.
The $14,870 paid for repairs which will increase the useful life of the equipment from four to five years is a capital expenditure which should capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset.
Answer:
E) if the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate wacc, it will probably become riskier over time.
Explanation:
Before the merger, Audaco would have rejected any project with an IRR of less than 12% (more risky investments) while Careco only required a 10% IRR (less risky projects). But after the merger the combined WACC will be lower than Audaco's, but higher than Careco's. Therefore, the new merged company will start accepting more risky projects and that tendency will continue over time. Eventually, the company's WACC will have to adjust and increase, and the cycle will continue.
Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Martha receives $200 on the first of each month. Stewart receives $200 on the last day of each month. Both Martha and Stewart will receive payments for 30 years. The discount rate is 9 percent, compounded monthly.
To calculate the present value, first, we need to determine the final value.
i= 0.09/12= 0.0075
n= 30*12= 360
<u>Martha:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i + {[A*(1+i)^n]-A}
A= montlhy payment
FV= {200*[(1.0075^360)-1]}/0.0075 + {[200*(1.0075^360)]-200}
FV= 366,148.70 + 2,746.12
FV= 368,894.82
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/ (1+i)^n
PV= 368,894.82/ 1.0075^360
PV= $25,042.80
<u>Stewart:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= monthly payment
FV= {200*[(1.0075^360)-1]}/0.0075
FV= 366,148.70
PV= 366,148.70/1.0075^360
PV= $24,856.37
Martha has a higher present value because the interest gest compounded for one more time.
