Answer:
40/3 cm
Step-by-step explanation:
FE : DC
1 : 3
Since area ABCD = 400
s² = 400
s = 20
FE = ⅓(20) = 20/3 cm
AM = DC - FE
AM = 20 - 20/3 = 40/3
I don’t know all of them but the ones across 8 are the same as 8 so 1,4, and 6 are all 42° :)
Answer:
Therefore option A.) 0 is correct.
Step-by-step explanation:
The graph is attached.
The solution of the equations as seen from the intersection of the equations in the graph is (0,2).
Therefore x = 0 is the solution which gives y = 2 for both equations.
Therefore option A.) 0 is correct.
Answer:
g(1) = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
In this situation, one is given a graph of the function (g(x)), and one is asked to evaluate the function (g(x)) for (1). An easy way to do so is to find (x = 1) on the coordinate plane, then draw a vertical line at this point. Note the place where (x = 1) intersects the graph of (g(x)). The (y-coordinate) of this intersection point is the output of the function (g(x)).
The line (x = 1) intersects the function (g(x)) at the point (1, 1). Thus (g(1) = 1).
<h3>Answer: See the diagram below</h3>
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Explanation:
Start at "2" on the number line. If you move to the right 6 steps, each time landing on a tickmark, then you'll arrive at "3" on the number line. This means the interval from 2 to 3 is cut into 6 equal pieces.
In other words, the little tickmarks represent 1/6 of a unit
If we go back to "2" on the number line, and move to the first tickmark, then we arrive at 2 & 1/6. Then the next tickmark would be 2 & 2/6, and so on.
Note how 2/6 = 1/3
So the mixed number 2 & 2/6 = 2 & 1/3
The location of 2 & 1/3 is marked in red in the diagram below.
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The mixed number 1 & 5/6 will be plotted a similar way.
Start at "1" on the number line. Count out 5 spaces until you arrive at 1 & 5/6. This is marked in blue in the same diagram. A shorter way is to start at "2" and count backward 1 tickmark. This works because the "2" is really 1 & 6/6. Going backward one tickmark has that "6/6" bump down to "5/6".