4.57 divided by 0.3 Help me find the answer

What is the solution to the linear equation? x – = + x

elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

X=1 that’s the awnser ok

8 0

4 years ago

One number is one more than another. Their sum is nine. Find both numbers.

STatiana [176]

Answer:

4 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's make an equation to solve. Let's call "one number" x. Another number is 1 more than x, so now we have x + 1. x plus x + 1 is equal to 9... and this gives us our equation:

x + (x + 1) = 9

We can now simplify by adding like terms together:

2x + 1 = 9

Now, let's take away 1 from both sides:

2x = 8

We can finally divide both sides by 2 to isolate x:

x = 4

One of our numbers is 4. Our other number is one more than 4, and 4 + 1 = 5. So our numbers are 4 and 5.

Hopefully this was helpful! If you need more help, let me know.

5 0

3 years ago

Answer very Quick i need it like right away

Julli [10]

Answer:

c + (a + 1.70) = 6.70

Step-by-step explanation:

you start the equation by Subtracting how much more alan has to the total

(this will only be set as an equation do not actually solve it)

then add 1.70 to a

"

6.70 - 1.70 = a + c

(1.70 + a)

c + (a + 1.70) = 6.70 "

8 0

3 years ago

Please answer, its a venn diagram

rjkz [21]

Look at the attached picture⤴

Hope it will help u...

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

About 11% of adult Americans are left-handed. Suppose that two people are randomly selected from this

marshall27 [118]

Answer:

a) $P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921$

$P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958$

$P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121$

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X | 0 | 1 | 2 |

P(X) | 0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

b) $P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.48)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution for the problem

Part a

On this case since we select a sample size of n =2 we have the following values for the number of left handed X=0,1,2. We can find the probabilities for each case since we know that p=0.11.

$P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921$

$P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958$

$P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121$

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X | 0 | 1 | 2 |

P(X) | 0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079$

8 0

3 years ago