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3 years ago

The operating cycle of a company is the average time that is required to go from cash to.

1 answer:

3 0

A company's operating cycle refers to the average time that is required to go from cash to: cash in producing revenues.

<h3>What is an operating cycle?</h3>

An operating cycle can be defined as the average time that it takes a company or business organization to buy goods, sell these goods and generate revenue (cash) from the sales of the goods.

This ultimately implies that, an operating cycle is simply the average time that is required to go from cash to cash in producing revenues, especially from the sales of the goods.

Read more on here: brainly.com/question/16945776

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What is the right that allows a property owner to mortgage a property as collateral for debt?

Sophie [7]

It is the <span>right to encumber which allows this.</span>

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4 years ago

You found that you should stock and sell 50 or 400 cans of beans per week in order to break even. In part (g) you are asked what

zubka84 [21]

Answer:

Option C is correct P(q) = -0.005q^{2} + 2.25q - 100

Explanation:

Profit P(q) = R(q) – C(q)

Profit = Revenue – Cost

So,

P(q) = -0.005q^{2} + 2.5q - 100 – 0.25q

P(q) = -0.005q^{2} + 2.25q - 100

In order to find break even, you should plug 50 and 400 into the formula P(q) = -0.005q^{2} + 2.25q - 100

4 0

4 years ago

You made an investment of $15,000 into an account that paid you an annual interest rate of 3.8 percent for the first 8 years and

bixtya [17]

Answer: 6.22%

Explanation:

To find the annual rate of return, find the geometric mean of the returns:

= ¹⁸√ (1 + 3.8%)⁸ * (1 + 8.2%)¹⁰ - 1

= ¹⁸√ 2.9638173484126186153 - 1

= 1.0622187633434 - 1

= 6.22%

3 0

3 years ago

Vulcan, Inc., has 8.4 percent coupon bonds on the market that have 6 years left to maturity. The bonds make annual payments and

larisa [96]

Answer:

The current price of the bond is $913.91 as computed below

Explanation:

In order to determine the current bond price,the pv formula in excel comes handy.

The pv formula is stated as below:

=pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the yield to maturity on the bond which is 10.40% in this case

nper is the period to maturity of the bond which is 6 years

pmt is the annual coupon payment payable by the bond which is denoted as coupon rate* face value of the bond i.e 8.40%*$1000=$84

fv is the face value of the bond which repayable at maturity

=-pv(10.40%,6,84,1000)

=$913.91

8 0

4 years ago

Chauncey Corporation began business on June 30, 2016. At that time, it issued 20,000 shares of $50 par value, six percent, cumul

Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

See the explanation below

Explanation:

a. Assume that Chauncey declared dividends of $69,000 in 2016, $0 in 2017, and $354,000 in 2018. Calculate the total dividends and the dividends per share paid to each class of stock in 2016, 2017, and 2018. Round to two decimal places.

a1. Dividend payment of $69,000 in 2016

Total cumulative preferred dividend = 20,000 * $50 * 6% = $60,000

Cumulative preferred dividend per share = $50 * 6% = $3.00 per share

Total common stock dividend = $69,000 - $60,000 = $9,000

Common stock dividend per share = $9,000/90,000 = $0.10 per share

a2. Dividend payment of $0 in 2017

Since $0 dividend is declared, it means no dividend is paid to each class of stock in 2017.

However, cumulative preferred dividend to be carried forward to when next the dividend is paid are as follows:

Total cumulative preferred dividend = 20,000 * $50 * 6% = $60,000

Cumulative preferred dividend per share = $50 * 6% = $3.00 per share

a3. Dividend payment of $354,000 in 2018

Note that the last year cumulative preferred stock dividend will be paid together with their this year's dividend before the common stock dividends are paid as follows:

Total cumulative preferred dividend for two years (2017 and 2018) = (20,000 * $50 * 6%) × 2 = $120,000

Cumulative preferred dividend per share for 2018 alone = $50 * 6% = $3.00 per share

Cumulative preferred dividend per share for 2017 and 2018 = ($50 * 6%) × 2 = $6.00 per share

Total common stock dividend = $354,000 - $120,000 = $234,000

Common stock dividend per share = $234,000/90,000 = $2.60 per share

b. Assume that Chauncey declared dividends of $0 in 2016, $120,000 in 2017, and $186,000 in 2018. Calculate the total dividends and the dividends per share paid to each class of stock in 2016, 2017, and 2018. Round to two decimal places.

b1. Dividend payment of $0 in 2016

Since $0 dividend is declared, it means no dividend is paid to each class of stock in 2016.

However, cumulative preferred dividend to be carried forward to when next the dividend is paid are as follows:

Total cumulative preferred dividend = 20,000 * $50 * 6% = $60,000

Cumulative preferred dividend per share = $50 * 6% = $3.00 per share

b2. Dividend payment of $120 in 2017

Note that the last year cumulative preferred stock dividend will be paid together with their this year's dividend before the common stock dividends are paid as follows:

Total cumulative preferred dividend for two years (2017 and 2018) = (20,000 * $50 * 6%) × 2 = $120,000

Cumulative preferred dividend per share for 2018 alone = $50 * 6% = $3.00 per share

Cumulative preferred dividend per share for 2017 and 2018 = ($50 * 6%) × 2 = $6.00 per share

Since proffered stock has exhausted the dividend paid, no or $0 dividend will be paid to the common stock holder.

b3. Dividend payment of $186,000 in 2018

Total cumulative preferred dividend = 20,000 * $50 * 6% = $60,000

Cumulative preferred dividend per share = $50 * 6% = $3.00 per share

Total common stock dividend = $186,000 - $60,000 = $96,000

Common stock dividend per share = $96,000/90,000 = $1.07 per share.

6 0

3 years ago