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Sergio [31]
3 years ago
12

Find the value of x. -2(6x - 3) = 27

Mathematics
2 answers:
marishachu [46]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

x = -1.75

Step-by-step explanation:

-2(6x - 3) = 27

distribute the -2

-2 * 6x = -12x

-2 * -3 = 6

-12x + 6 = 27

subtract 6 from both sides

-12x = 21

divide both sides by -12

-12x/-12 = x

21/-12 = -1.75

we're left with x = -1.75

SOVA2 [1]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  • x = -7/4

Step-by-step Solution:

<u>Let's simplify the equation to find the value of x.</u>

  • -2(6x - 3) = 27

<u>[Simplify the Distributive property]</u>

  • => -12x + 6 = 27

<u>[Subtract 6 both sides]</u>

  • => -12x = 27 - 6

<u>[Solve the RHS]</u>

  • => -12x = 21

<u>[Divide -12 both sides to isolate the variable]</u>

  • => x = -21/12

<u>[Simplify the fraction]</u>

  • => x = -7/4

Hence, the value of x is -7/4.

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Graph ∆KLM with vertices K(2,2), L(0,- 1), and M(-3,2). Graph ∆K'L'M' with a scale factor of 2. What are the coordinates of the
olasank [31]

Answer:

The coordinates of the new vertices are:

K'(4,4), L'(0,- 2), and M'(-6,4).

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to dilate a shape by 2, you can simply multiply the coordinates of the orignal triangle each by 2 to find the new coordinates of the new vertices.

K(2,2), L(0,- 1), and M(-3,2)

K'(2*2,2*2), L'(0*2,- 1*2), and M'(-3*2,2*2).

Now become...

K'(4,4), L'(0,- 2), and M'(-6,4).

You can now graph ∆K'L'M' using these coordinates.

5 0
3 years ago
20 business cards are placed in a hat, 10 belong to women, 10 belong yo men If 2 cards are drawn at once. what's the probability
erik [133]

Answer:

First choice:

               \large\boxed{\large\boxed{5/19}}

Explanation:

<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards  in the hat has changed.

In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.

<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>

  • Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)

  • Number of man's card in the hat: 10

  • Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.

<u />

<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>

  • Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)

  • Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10

  • Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.

<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>

<u />

  • (1/2) × (10/19) = 5/19

That is the first choice.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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dmitriy555 [2]

Answer:

Answer is C. VT just took the test and this was the answer 100 percent.

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the test

7 0
3 years ago
2. Mikel eats 22 ounces of candy in 11 days.
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

22/11=2  2x8=16

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b. 8 days to eat 1 pound of cady

3 0
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krek1111 [17]

Answer:

cos(C)

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall that the sine ratio is opposite over hypotenuse.

\sin(A)  =  \frac{BC}{AC}

Also the cosine ratio is adjacent over hypotenuse.

\cos(C)  =  \frac{BC}{AC}

The tangent ratio does not come close because it doesn't involve the Hypotenuse.

\therefore \sin(A)=\cos(C)

4 0
4 years ago
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