Answer:
to calculate depreciation using the sum-of-the-years'-digits method:
n(n+1) divided by 2 = [12(13)] / 2 = 78
depreciable value = cost - salvage value = $469,000 - $40,000 = $429,000
- depreciation year 1 = 12/78 x $429,000 = $66,000
- depreciation year 2 = 11/78 x $429,000 = $60,500
- depreciation year 3 = 10/78 x $429,000 = $55,000
the formula used to calculate depreciation using the double-declining-balance method is:
2 x cost of the asset x depreciation rate
- depreciation year 1 = 2 x $469,000 x 1/12 = $78,167
- depreciation year 2 = 2 x ($469,000 - $78,167) x 1/12 = $65,139
- depreciation year 3 = 2 x ($390,833 - $65,139) x 1/12 = $54,282
Answer:
the yield to maturity is 5.77%
Explanation:
The computation of the yield to maturity is shown below:
Given that
FV = $1,000
PV = $431
PMT = $0
NPER = 15
The formula is shown below:
= RATE(NPER,PMT,-PV,FV,TYPE)
After applying the above formula, the rate of interest is 5.77%
Hence, the yield to maturity is 5.77%
There's actually 7 one of which is "Blowin in the wind"
The probability that both item is defective are 3.84%
The probability that the second is defective is 20%
<h3> What is the probability that both items are defective?</h3>
a) Remember that the question says they are drawn without replacement
hence
(20/100)*(19/99)
= 19/495
= 0.03838383
= 3.84%
b. What is the probability that the second item is defective?
(20/100)*(19/99) + (80/100)*(20/99)
= 0.03838383 + 0.1616
= 0.199999
= 0.2
= 20 percent
Read more on probability here: brainly.com/question/24756209
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YES, financial institutions can keep borrowers from engaging in risky activities, even though there are no written restrictive covenant between the bank and the borrowers. The bank can do this by warning the borrowers that they will not be considered for future loans if the the present loan is not well managed.
