Answer:
d.the company is precisely breaking even.
Explanation:
Margin of safety is referred to current sales - Break even sales ratio to current sales as a percentage.
Basically it is quoted as follows:
Therefore, when the current sales = Break even sales then only the company will have margin of safety = 0
Thus, at 0 margin of safety the company basically is at no profit no loss situation, that is break even.
Answer:
Option(c) is the correct answer to the given question
Explanation:
The project analysis means finding the cost of project ,project is working properly as the customer need and other factor are used to check the manufacturing of new product.
Following are features of project analysis in the new product
- Improve in net working capital of associated with the release of a new program.
- The capital expenditures of a new project which work in the favour of a company's business working capital.
- The variations in the working capital of a company with or without a specific project.
All the other option are related to project analysis of the manufacturing of a new product that's why they are incorrect according to the question .
Answer:
When the <u>market</u> value of debt is the same as its face value, it is said to be selling at <u>par</u> value.
Explanation:
Face value and par value is same. When market price of the bond is same as the face value of the bond it is said that this debt is trading on its par value. Par or face value is the value on which bond is initially issued and the value mentioned on the face of the bond. So, When the <u>market</u> value of debt is the same as its face value, it is said to be selling at <u>par</u> value.
The duration of Security P based on the info given will be 11 years.
<h3>How to calculate the time?</h3>
From the information given, Security P is a preferred stock and Security Z is a zero coupon bond that has 11 years remaining until maturity.
Therefore, the duration will be:
= (1 + y)/y
= (1 + 0.1)/0.1
= 1.1/0.1
= 11 years
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Answer:
Instructions are listed below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A lottery ticket states that you will receive $250 every year for the next ten years.
A) i=0.06 ordinary annuity
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {250*[(1.06^10)-1]}/0.06= $3,295.20
PV= 3,295.20/1.06^10=1,840.02
B) i=0.06 annuity due (beginning of the year)
FV= 3,295.20 + [(250*1.06^10)-1]= $3492.91
PV= 3492.91/1.06^10= $1,950.42
C) The interest gets compounded for one more period in an annuity due.
