This one is tricky, only because you aren't sure if they are adding the percentage before you deposit 4,000 more, or after. Since both are annually.
But I would add 11,122.76 and 4,000 =15,122.76 add 12% which is 1814.73 making your total for the first year = 16,937.49.
Then assume it again, you add 4,000. That's 20,937.49
add 12% of 20,937.49 which is 2512.50 so that equals =23,449.99 by the end of year 2.
so add 4,000 again, that's 27,449.99
find 12% and add it to get =3294 add that to the total =30,743.99 by year 3.
(I'm sure they want you to round, which I keep doing with my decimals, but it'll probably go faster if you round ahead of time, but I'm trying to be accurate)
Keep going....
34,743.99 which 12% added is 4169 or a total of $38,912.99 by end of year 4.
add 4,000 to get =42,912.99 and 12% that's roughly a total of 48,063 rounded by the end of year 5.
52,063 at 12% 58,310 by year 6.
58,000 add 12% = 64,960 at end of year 7
68,960 add 12%= 77235 at year 8
81,235 add 12% =90,983 by year 9
94,983 add 12% =106,380 by year 10 (this is where you can assume that they'd want you to double it and it's be 20 years and 210,000. But in real math, the amount is increasing so much because it's 12% of the current balance)
123,626.56 year 11
142,942 by year 12
164,574 by year 13
188,803 by year 14
203, 939 by year 15
So you'd go over 210 by year 16.
Now again, this depends if they add the 12% before or after you deposit 4,000 each year. It also has to have an easier equation, but to be accurate I did it this way. I'm sure that they want you to do like x=years and you'd go 11,122.76+4,000 multiplied by 12% and then try different years to see the number you get until you'd come to 16.
Answer:
D) functional allocation
Explanation:
These are the options for the question;
A) overriding royalty arrangement.
B) reversionary sharing arrangement.
C) carried interest.
D) functional allocation.
A sharing arrangement in which only deductible costs are apportioned to the investor, with the sponsor bearing all capitalized costs is called functional allocation.
functional allocation in management involves the act in which employee are grouped in departments according to skills possessed by them or area they specialize in, and these department are been managed by functional leader.. It is very important in business for employees to give their best during production.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The current ratio is
We know that
Current ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities
= $440,000 ÷ $200,000
= 2.2
Cash $160,000
Marketable Securities $75,000
Account receivable $65,000
Inventory $140,000
Current Assets $440,000
Account Payable $200,000
current liabilities $200,000
b
Quick ratio =( Current assets - inventory ) ÷ Current Liabilities
= ($440,000 - $140,000 ) ÷ $200,000
= 1.5
Answer:
$2,033
Explanation:
The computation of the terminal value at the end of the year 2 is shown below:
= {Free cash flow of the firm × (1 + growth rate) × (1 + growth rate) + (1+ growth rate)} ÷ (WACC - growth rate)
= {($80 million × (1 + 0.10) × (1 + 0.10) × (1 + 0.05)} ÷ (10% - 5)
= $101.64 ÷ 0.05
= $2,033
We simply applied the above formula so that the Terminal value could arrive
Answer:
The options are given below:
A. the mail box rule.
B. commercial impracticability.
C. frustration of purpose.
D. true impossibility.
The correct option is B
Explanation:
Commercial impracticability refers to a situation whereby an event occurs which makes the performance of a contractual duty excessively burdensome, unbearably difficult, or extremely expensive, for the party committed to such performance.
As can be seen from the scenario given above, Ron will be incurring a loss of $40 were he to continue with the contract, this loss has rendered the contract commercially impracticable, and therefore, this will be Ron's best argument in support of his petition to be discharged from the contract.