Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the integer be 6 for even and 7 for odd (say)
For 6, we divide by 2, now get 3. Now we multiply by 3 and add 1 to get 10. Now since 10 is even divide by 5, now multiply by 3 and add 1 to get 16. Now divide by 2 again by 2 again by 2 again by 2 till we get rid of even numbers.
The result is 1, so multiply by 3 and add 1 we get 4 now divide 2 times by 2 to get 1, thus this result now again repeats after 2 times.
Say if we select off number 3, multiply by 3 and add 1 to get 10 now divide by 5, now repeat the same process as above for 5 until we get 1 and it gets repeated every third time.
Thus whether odd or even after some processes, we get 1 and the process again and again returns to 1.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The solution to the given expression is 1/2562890625
Step-by-step explanation:
(3⁴ × 5⁴)⁻²
Simplify the terms inside the parentheses. 3⁴ × 5⁴ is the same as 15⁴ because even though the base numbers are different, the exponents are the same which makes it similar.
(15⁴)⁻²
Now, for this step, we are going to add the exponents because when multiplying, the exponential numbers add together. So 4 × -2 = -8.
15⁻⁸
Since we can not have a negative exponent, we are going to change this into a fraction. We do this by putting this term in a fraction where 1 is the numerator and the term is the denominator.
1 / 15⁻⁸
Now, we simplify the term on the bottom.
1 / 2562890625
So, this is the solution to the problem.
Mr. Rowley: 16:14 which reduces to 8:7
Ms. Rivera: 64:60 -> 16:15
The ratios are not equivalent because when they are reduced, they do not equal the same thing.
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Range is all y values of a graph and seeing that it has no arrows means its not infinite so its not B. The graph starts at 0 and ends at 5 so the smallest value is 0 and the largest is 5 therefore making the answer A.
