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Umnica [9.8K]
3 years ago
12

Section B: Multiples and factors 1. Why is the number 17 classified as a prime number? ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
12345 [234]3 years ago
4 0
17 is a prime number because it’s only divisible by 1 and it’s self, so it only has 2 factors.
Vladimir [108]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Prime Number is a number that can be divided exactly only by itself and 1. Since 17 has exactly two factors 1 and 17, it is a prime number.

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What is the slope of the line?<br> y - 3 = 5(x-2)
Lemur [1.5K]
The answer would be m=5
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please I need some answers a few is fine
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

a ) Square Root of 25 = 5

b ) Square Root or 81 = 9

c ) Square Root of 64 = 8

d ) Square Root of 169 = 13

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps! <3

8 0
3 years ago
Chris and Goffy ran from Newton to Boston at 15 km/h and 12 km/h respectively. They both started from Newton at 10:00 a.m. If Go
zavuch27 [327]

Answer: Chris reached Boston at 10:24 a.m.

Explanation:

Since we have given that

Speed at which Chris ran from Newton to Boston = 15 km/h

Speed at which Goffy ran from Newton to Boston = 12 km/h

Time at which both started = 10:00 a.m.

Time at which Goffy reached Boston = 10:30 a.m.

That means Goffy takes half an hour to reach Boston,

so, Distance between Newton and Boston is given by

Speed \times Time\\\\=12\times \frac{1}{2}=6 \ km

So, Time taken by Chris to ran from Newton and Boston is given by

Time=\frac{Distance}{Speed}=\frac{6}{15}=\frac{2}{5}\times 60\ minutes=24\ minutes\\

So, Chris reached Boston at 10:24 a.m.

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A batch of 25 injection-molded parts contains 5 that have suffered excessive shrinkage. Round your answers to four decimal place
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

(a) The probability that the second part is the one with excessive shrinkage is 0.2000.

(b) The probability that the third part is the one with excessive shrinkage is 0.2000.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the variable <em>X </em>ₙ denote the <em>n</em>th part that has  suffered excessive shrinkage.

(a)

It is provided that two parts are selected at random.

The parts are selected without replacement.

Now, for the two parts selected it is possible that either both have excessive shrinkage or only the second part has excessive shrinkage.

The probability that the second part is the one with excessive shrinkage is:

P (X₂) = P (X₂ ∩ X₁) + P (X₂ ∩ X₁')

         =[\frac{4}{24}\times \frac{5}{25}]+[\frac{5}{24}\times \frac{20}{25}]               (without replacement)

         =\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{6}

         =0.2000

Thus, the probability that the second part is the one with excessive shrinkage is 0.2000.

(b)

It is provided that three parts are selected at random.

The parts are selected without replacement.

Now, for the three parts selected it is possible that either all three have excessive shrinkage or any two of the three has excessive shrinkage or only the third part has excessive shrinkage.

The probability that the third part is the one with excessive shrinkage is:

P (X₃) = P (X₃ ∩ X₂ ∩ X₁) + P (X₃ ∩ X₂ ∩ X₁')

                 + P (X₃ ∩ X₂' ∩ X₁) + P (X₃ ∩ X₂' ∩ X₁')

         =[\frac{3}{23}\times \frac{4}{24}\times \frac{5}{25}]+[\frac{4}{23}\times \frac{5}{24}\times \frac{20}{25}]+[\frac{4}{23}\times \frac{20}{25}\times \frac{5}{24}]+[\frac{5}{23}\times \frac{19}{24}\times \frac{20}{25}]  

         =0.2000

Thus, the probability that the third part is the one with excessive shrinkage is 0.2000.

6 0
3 years ago
What is 54 in the ratio 1:6:2
solmaris [256]

Answer:

6:36:12

Step-by-step explanation:

1+6+2=9

54÷9=6

1×6=6

6×6=36

2×6=12

and to double-check you can add them up and you should get the total amount

8 0
3 years ago
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