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irakobra [83]
2 years ago
9

Pretty Lady Cosmetic Products has an average production process time of 40 days. Finished goods are kept on hand for an average

of 15 days before they are sold. Accounts receivable are outstanding an average of 35 days, and the firm receives 40 days of credit on its purchases from suppliers.
Business
1 answer:
Yuki888 [10]2 years ago
6 0

Based on the production process time, the days finished goods are kept on hand and others, the operating cycle would be 50 days.  

<h3>What is the operating cycle?
</h3>

The operating cycle can be found as:

= Average production time + Finished goods holding period + Accounts receivable outstanding period - Days of credit

Solving gives:

= 40 + 15 + 35 - 40

= 50 days

Find out more on operating cycle at brainly.com/question/26482515.

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Which of the following statements is true of the behavior of total variable​ costs, within the relevant​ range? A. They will inc
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

They will decrease as production decreases

Explanation:

Total Variable cost is sum of all the cost incurred in production of total units of goods produced. It is directly proportional to the number of units of goods produced. It helps to analyze cost structure of goods and then decide on pricing strategy of the goods. Some of the examples of variable cost can be packaging cost, raw material’s cost.

Mathematically it can be defined as  

Total variable cost = Total units of goods produced *  variable cost for one unit of good produced  

Hence from the given option  They will decrease as production decreases as the number of units of goods produced will decrease and hence lesser raw material and packaging will be required to produce the goods.

7 0
3 years ago
Redeker Company purchased equipment on January 1, 2016, for $90,000. It is estimated that the equipment will have a $5,000 salva
Ksenya-84 [330]

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6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
These items are taken from the financial statements of Coronado Industries at December 31, 2017. Buildings $105,800 Accounts rec
swat32

Answer:

Assets:                                         Liabilities:

<u>Current Assets       </u>                    <u> Current Liabilities</u>

Cash                            11,840          Accounts payable          9,500

Accounts receivable 12,600          Notes payable(current) 13,600

Prepaid insurance <u>     3,200  </u>        Interest payable              3,600

Total current assets:  27,640          Total Current Liab         26,700

<u>Fixed assets:</u>                               <u>Long-term Liabilities:</u>

Buildings (net)       60,200           Note Payable:                80,000

Equipment (net)     63,680             Total Liabilities            106,700

Land                     <u>   61,200   </u>      Equity:

total fixed assets: 185,080              Common stock         60,000

                                                         RE                              46,020

                                                       Total Equity                106,020

Total Assets: 212,720‬                  Total Liab + E              212,720

Explanation:

for RE we need to calculate the net income

income:

Service revenue           14,700

Insurance expense         ( 780 )

Depreciation expense ( 5,300 )

Interest expense          ( 2,600 )

Net income:                    6,020

<u />

<u>RE </u> 40,000 + 6,020 = 46,020

for note payable we split the current and long term portion

93,600 - 13,600 = 80,000 long term debt

te rest is self-explanatory

8 0
3 years ago
It is not possible for abandonment options to decrease a project's risk as measured by the project's coefficient of variation.
Tatiana [17]

This is false abandonment options should decrease a project's risk.

4 0
2 years ago
The Graber Corporation’s common stock has a beta of 1.8. If the risk-free rate is 5.8 percent and the expected return on the mar
Murljashka [212]

Answer:

16.96%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 5.8% + 1.8 × (12% - 5.8%)

= 5.8% + 1.8 × 6.2%

= 5.8% + 11.16%

= 16.96%

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also called market risk premium

3 0
3 years ago
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